Questions tagged [translation-philosophy]

The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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136 views

Regarding word order in Hebrew-English translation

I am studying an interlinear translation of the acrostic poem in Proverbs Chapter 31, found at http://biblehub.com/interlinear/proverbs/31.htm (lines 10-31). My question is this: since the English is ...
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What does the phrase “time of life” mean in Genesis 18:10?

Genesis 18:10 (KJV) And he said, I will certainly return unto thee according to the time of life; and, lo, Sarah thy wife shall have a son. And Sarah heard it in the tent door, which was behind ...
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2answers
244 views

Why do some versions have “Christ” in 1 Peter 3:15 while others have “God”?

I'm finding inconsistencies between translations of 1 Peter 3:15 KJV But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts... NASB but sanctify Christ as Lord in your hearts ESV but in your hearts ...
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1answer
109 views

Why is there no pronoun attached to the reflexive 'abhor' of Job in 42:6?

Last year I put the book of Job into poetic verse, referenced from selected translations as I am not an Hebrew scholar. I have never been content with the last verse as there appears to be a ...
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4answers
534 views

Is it “preaching” or “the thing preached” that is foolish in 1 Cor 1:21?

Is it preaching or the thing preached that is foolish and pleasing to God as a means to save those who believe in 1 Cor 1:21?
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What does ἀϊδίοις mean in Jude 1:6?

"And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day." Jude 1:6 KJV ...
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Why does להבריאכם mean “to make yourselves fat” in 1 Samuel 2:29

למה תבעטו בזבחי ובמנחתי אשר צויתי מעון ותכבד את־בניך ממני להבריאכם מראשית כל־מנחת ישראל לעמי "Wherefore kick ye at my sacrifice and at mine offering, which I have commanded in my habitation; and ...
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Did Jesus hide himself or was he hidden in John 8:59?

In John 8:59 (and in John 12:36) the voice of the verb κρύπτω is passive which I understand to mean that the subject (Jesus) is receiving the action of the verb as opposed to doing the action of the ...
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510 views

What is the best translation for הַפַּ֗עַם? (Gn 2:23)

I have encountered the word פַּעַם before, specifically, in my textbook,1 and saw it translated as "time" or "occurrence". My textbook also noted that the word can mean "once&...
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108 views

In Hebrews 11:6 is there any difference between “is” and “exists”?

Is there any improper nuance to the word "exists" vs "is" in translating the present tense of "to be" in Hebrews 11:6? Berean Literal Bible: And without faith, it is impossible to please Him. For ...
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What did the serpent really ask in Genesis 3:1?

One nuance of the meaning of the serpent's question hinges on the translation of מִכֹּל עֵץ (Gen 3:1). Translated as "from every tree" or "from any tree" basically determines whether the serpent ...
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What is the “fiery Gehenna” to which Jesus referred?

In the Greek manuscripts the word "γεενα" appears 12 times namely in Mt 5:22, 29, 30; 10:28; Mt 18:9; Mt 23:15, 33; Mark 9:43, 45, 47; Luke 12:5; James 3:6. The word is translated into English "...
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In Genesis 1, Did “The Bereshit” Create “God”?

According to Genesis 1:1: בראשית ברא אלהים את השמים ואת הארץ I've read that this is a grammatically incorrect because b'reshit does not have a definite article and the word order is wrong. ...
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1answer
838 views

What does “the flesh” mean in 1 John 4:2

In various translations, 1 John 4:2 says: New International Version This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,...
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Was Psalms 45:6 In our bibles a mistranslation (King instead of God)?

And why did the author of Hebrews quoted from this verse if it was badly translated? I'd really appreciate any help I could get because I'm having difficulties with this. Thanks
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Scholarly opinion of the Open English Bible [closed]

My essential question is what is the scholarly view of the Open English Bible (http://openenglishbible.org/)? How does it compare to the NIV or NRSV? Is there a known bias or other issue with it, ...
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1answer
101 views

Inspires the prophets,spirits of the prophets, or Lord God of the Holy prophets-Revelation 22:6

I have been reading on-line in the book of Revelation at chapter 22:6 (NIV) where it is written, 6 The angel said to me, “These words are trustworthy and true. The Lord, the God who inspires the ...
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440 views

Translation of the aorist indicative in John 1:14 versus 1 Peter 1:24

The Greek in John 1:14 says καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας. Both ἐγένετο and ἐσκήνωσεν ...
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Was Any of the New Testament Actually Written in Aramaic? [duplicate]

I met a guy that introduced me to the Aramaic English New Testament. I always thought that the New Testament was translated from the original Greek. This version claims: The Aramaic text used in ...
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1answer
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Why are the scriptures so heavily punctuated with colons and semicolons?

It's confusing to me the way colons and semicolons are added to the text. I find myself hampered when I'm reading because I have to gloss over the punctuation in order to read what is said. Why is it ...
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“Benefactor” vs “shield” in Genesis 15:1

In Gen 15:1, the LORD says to Abram: אַל־תִּירָ֣א אַבְרָ֗ם אָנֹכִי֙ מָגֵ֣ן לָ֔ךְ שְׂכָרְךָ֖ הַרְבֵּ֥ה מְאֹֽד Fear not, Abram. I am a māgēn to you, your very great reward. (my overly literal [...
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Should John 1:18 be translated differently?

Assuming that John 1:18 actually says theos instead of huios, and monogenes means one of a kind or unique, the Greek says: θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ...
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How can we understand Genesis 49:6 in the light of different translations

KJV 49:6 O my soul, come not thou into their secret; unto their assembly, mine honour, be not thou united: for in their anger they slew a man, and in their selfwill they digged down a wall. ...
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569 views

What is the basis of the extra text in the NASB for Romans 12:6?

Most translations are essentially along the lines of HCSB: "According to the grace given to us, we have different gifts:" But NASB adds, using capital letters to indicate the addition: "Since ...
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1answer
70 views

What does “with him” mean in 2 Corinthians 6?

(KJV)2 Corinthians 6:1 We then, as workers together with him , beseech you also that ye receive not the grace of God in vain. Why does Paul use "with him" does this mean that the apostle Paul &...
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899 views

Why does the KJV use “made flesh” in John 1:14 when other translations use “became flesh?”

(KJV)John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. John 1:14 (NASB) [14]And the ...
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100 views

Reliability of quotations used in Psalm 16:2-3 [closed]

I have noticed that quotations are not always interchanged among the different translations. For example: NKJV Psalm, 16:2 O my soul, you have said to the Lord, “You are my Lord, My goodness is ...
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717 views

Should Genesis 2:16 say “you shall surely eat”?

The Hebrew language uses an idiom in which two occurances of the same word is used side by side. From what I understand, this is meant to show emphasis. Genesis 2:16 in the KJV says: And the LORD God ...
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1answer
103 views

Is “shalt” necessary in Genesis 2:17?

Genesis 2:17 in the KJV says: But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die. The Hebrew says: but of the ...
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695 views

Can צָוָה mean “gave charge” in Genesis?

Most English translations say something like: And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, “Of every tree of the garden you are free to eat; The Hebrew says: ויצו יהוה אלהים על־האדם לאמר מכל עץ־...
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1answer
84 views

authority for translation of προς as “with” in 2 Cor 5:8

2 Corinthians 5:8 is a hugely important text for doctrines concerning life after death. It is almost universally translated something like "absent from the body, and to be present with the Lord." ...
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2answers
627 views

Why are kosmios and euschēmosynē both translated to “modesty” in the ESV?

Why are these two greek words both translated to modesty in the ESV and, to my knowledge, not translated this way in any other bible version? 1 Timothy 2:9 ESV likewise also that women should adorn ...
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Is there a difference between “the sin” and “sin” in Romans?

In the Youngs Literal Translation, Romans 5:12 reads Romans 5:12 because of this, even as through one man the sin did enter into the world, and through the sin the death; and thus to all men the ...
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1answer
786 views

Is “tor-im” translated to “turtles” in KJV correct? Turtles was not used that way in 1600

In Leviticus 5:7 "tor-im" is translated as "turtledove". And in Leviticus 12:8 "tor-im" is translated as "turtle". It seems confusing for translators to translate a word one way, and then translate it ...
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1answer
508 views

Is it appropriate to translate Galatians 3:21 as “If a law had been given”?

I do not read Hebrew or Greek but my interpretation of Pauline epistles is different than traditional protestants. Gal 3:21 (ESV) Is the law then contrary to the promises of God? Certainly not! ...
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1answer
358 views

Why is the ESV translation of Ephesians 4 so terrible? [closed]

In the fourth chapter of Ephesians, in the 13th verse, the English Standard Version has that we are all to "attain ... to mature manhood, ..." I already raise my eyebrows at that word "manhood," ...
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2answers
443 views

What text(s) do modern scholars use to translate the New Testament? [closed]

It is common for most Pastors like myself to us the 'original Greek' when studying in preparation for teachings and sermons. I am curious, though, as to how we came to understand what the original ...
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1answer
293 views

In John 19:17 did author incorrectly attribute word Golgotha from Hebrew transliteration or correctly from Aramaic? (Differing English Translations)

An English Bible translation which attributes it as Hebrew: John 19:17, KJV: And he bearing his cross went forth into a place called the place of a skull, which is called in the Hebrew Golgotha: ...
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2answers
890 views

Why does the KJV add “desire” to Mark 11:24?

Mark 11:24 ESV: Therefore I tell you, whatever you ask in prayer, believe that you have received it, and it will be yours. Mark 11:24 KJV: Therefore I say unto you, What things soever ye desire, when ...
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0answers
44 views

Is it correct to distinguish between “messenger” and “angel”? [duplicate]

Both Hebrew and Greek have each one word that is translated with either messenger or angel. I am wondering if the distinguishing between messenger and angel in English (or between Bote and Engel in ...
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1answer
188 views

What does οὐ τὰς τυχούσας mean in Acts 19:11?

Most translations say something like: "And God wrought special miracles by the hands of Paul" δυνάμεις τε οὐ τὰς τυχούσας ἐποίει ὁ Θεὸς διὰ τῶν χειρῶν Παύλου, But the NKJV says: "Now ...
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1answer
434 views

Why does the Hebrew in Genesis 3:16 indicate that the man will rule “her” or “you” when it looks as if the Hebrew isn't a personal pronoun?

אֶֽל־הָאִשָּׁ֣ה אָמַ֗ר הַרְבָּ֤ה אַרְבֶּה֙ עִצְּבוֹנֵ֣ךְ וְהֵֽרֹנֵ֔ךְ בְּעֶ֖צֶב תֵּֽלְדִ֣י בָנִ֑ים וְאֶל־אִישֵׁךְ֙ תְּשׁ֣וּקָתֵ֔ךְ וְה֖וּא יִמְשָׁל־בָּֽךְ׃ In attempting to study Genesis 3:16, I can't understand why ...
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How many Hebrew words are in Gen 15:6, and what do they mean?

How many Hebrew words are in Gen 15:6, and what do they mean in English? Does the final translation include English words that are not in the Hebrew text but are implied? Should they then be in ...
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1answer
196 views

How is “wicked” and “wickedness” differentiated in Psalm 37:20

כי רשעים יאבדו ואיבי יהוה כיקר כרים כלו בעשן כלו "But the wicked shall perish, and the enemies of the LORD shall be as the fat of lambs: they shall consume; into smoke shall they consume away.&...
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1answer
285 views

In Psalm 74:12, why use the expression “is from of old”?

In Psalm 74:12 (ESV) we read "Yet God my King is from of old, ...". While I understand that to mean something like "Yet God my King is from ancient times", why would translators use the phrase "is ...
4
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1answer
194 views

Should Genesis 8:10 read “he waited” or “he waited anxiously”?

In Genesis 8:10 the first word in the MT is ויחל. The Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia (BHS) suggests emending to וייחל. Everyone seems to accept the BHS and translate this as "waited" just as if the ...
4
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2answers
921 views

In John 1:1-3, translated pronouns as “him” or “it”? (Neuter or masculine?)

Disclaimer: I don't know any foreign languages except Pig Latin. This is probably a dumb question, but... In Koine, I believe "logos" is a masculine noun. Pronouns for "logos" such as Οὗτος are ...
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104 views

In Revelation 13:8, should “ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου” be translated “from” or “before” the foundation of the world? [duplicate]

The phrase ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου is generally translated from the foundation of the world, and is translated this way in all occurrences of the phrase in the ESV, except in Revelation 13:8: and all ...
6
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1answer
157 views

In Matt. 26:28, should πολλῶν be translated as [for] “many” or “the masses”?

Is the translation “the many” in verses such as the following an accurate translation of the Greek word πολλῶν? 28 for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the ...

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