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Questions tagged [translation-philosophy]

The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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Which version of Psalm 80:19 is closest in intent to the original?

We read in Psalm 80:19 ( KJV): Turn us again, O Lord God of hosts, cause thy face to shine; and we shall be saved. Some other versions have a slightly different wording, to include ' to shine on us '...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
105 views

How should "sin" be (philosophically?) understood in Romans 5:12?

In Romans 5:12 (and Roman 5 in general) Paul talks about "sin", seemingly personifying it as, for example "entering the world": Therefore, just as sin entered the world through ...
Dan's user avatar
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3 answers
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In Ecclesiastes 7:16, does Qoheleth say that it is bad to be very righteous and very wise, or that it is bad to be self-righteous and vainly wise?

Ecclesiastes 7:16 NASB "Do not be excessively righteous, and do not be overly wise." Current translations make the passage appear to convey that it is not good to be very righteous and wise,...
Joshua B's user avatar
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The Righteousness of God as described in Psalms

This question is about the righteousness of God as described in Psalm 85:10-13 and Psalm 89:14 and the reason for the differences between the Authorised (King James) Version and the New International ...
Lesley's user avatar
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translating ethnos to gens in John 11:50

Given that the Greek ethnos typically mean ethnic groups of people, why did the Vulgate translate it to gens in this verse? If I am reading the verse correctly (this is a big assumption) should it say ...
Ted Brown's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
132 views

Is The Lord God Almighty the Temple and the Lamb in Revelation 21:22?

I was looking at Revelation 21:22 - (KJV) And I saw no temple therein: for the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are the temple of it. (NIV) I did not see a temple in the city, because the Lord God ...
Albert L.'s user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
287 views

Why did the New Testament writers, when quoting the Old Testament, refrain from using the Tetragrammaton (YHWH)?

The New Testament writers often quote the Old Testament. When quoting the Old Testament passages that contain the Name (i.e., the Tetragrammaton), they use the substitution Greek word typically found ...
Chris M's user avatar
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1 answer
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A light of/from or a light to/for

In Isaiah 42:6 (ESV) the following phrase: “I am the Lord; I have called you[a] in righteousness; I will take you by the hand and keep you; I will give you as a covenant for the people, a light for ...
User2280's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
304 views

Word order of 1 Corinthians 1:24

I saw that the greek of the latter half of 1 Corinthians 1:24 is: "Χριστὸν Θεοῦ δύναμιν καὶ Θεοῦ σοφίαν." The direct word for word translation would be "Christ God power and God wisdom&...
User2280's user avatar
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I am curious about the word order for John 3:3 in the NIV

The NIV translates John 3:3 "Very truly I tell you, no one can see the kingdom of God unless they are born again." This reverses the word from the traditional, "Truly, truly, I say ...
Richard Peterson's user avatar
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1 answer
60 views

Why does the NIV add "also" to Micah 6:4?

Micah 6:4 reads כִּי הֶעֱלִתִיךָ מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם וּמִבֵּית עֲבָדִים פְּדִיתִיךָ וָאֶשְׁלַח לְפָנֶיךָ אֶת־מֹשֶׁה אַהֲרֹן וּמִרְיָם For I brought thee up out of the land of Miżrayim, and redeemed ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
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2 answers
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Psalm 22:31 - Whose children are they?

Psalm 22:31 (or 30) זֶ֥רַע יַֽעַבְדֶ֑נּוּ יְסֻפַּ֖ר לַֽאדֹנָ֣י לַדּֽוֹר׃ Offspring shall serve Him; the Lord’s fame shall be proclaimed to the generations. I notice that the JPS (Jewish) translation ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
55 views

What’s going on with ουρανος?

This is a messy question, and I’m not even sure how to articulate it well. Bear with me in this attempt to delineate something I don’t understand well. I am no Greek scholar, but have been dabbling ...
Philosophos's user avatar
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2 answers
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What is the literal translation of Genesis 15:6 (b)?

And he believed in the Lord and he counted it to him for righteousness. [Genesis 15:6 KJV] וְהֶאֱמִן, בַּיהוָה; וַיַּחְשְׁבֶהָ לּוֹ, צְדָקָה. Genesis 15:6 The middle Hebrew word of the text appears ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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2 votes
6 answers
196 views

John 1:3 says that all things "were made" through Jesus and not "are made". Does this mean that Jesus is not creating any new physical things?

John 1:3 ESV All things WERE made through him, and without him WAS not any thing made that WAS made. Notice that all translations render this in the past tense, not in a tense of continuation ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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0 votes
2 answers
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Are the "elect angels" in 1 Timothy 5:21 born-again believers?

1 Timothy 5:21 ESV In the presence of God and of Christ Jesus and of the elect angels I charge you to keep these rules without prejudging, doing nothing from partiality. Are the "elect angels&...
Joshua B's user avatar
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10 votes
5 answers
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Romans 3:22 – ‘of’ or ‘in’? Old translations differ from modern ones. Why?

Tyndale’s English translation of 1525 – The rightewesnes no dout which is good before God, commeth by the fayth of Jesus Christ’ The Great Bible of 1539 – ‘The ryghtewesnes of God, commeth by the ...
Anne's user avatar
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-1 votes
2 answers
77 views

Is the "di" in John 7:43 accusative or genitive?

John 7:43 Thus the people were divided because of him. Does this correlate with Hebrews 1:3 and John 1:3?
Joshua B's user avatar
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0 votes
2 answers
60 views

A translation question about Colossians 1:27

I stumbled onto answers to a question about the meaning of "ἡ ἐλπὶς τῆς δόξης" which turned out not to answer my very straightforward linguistic question, which is strictly about the ...
HAT's user avatar
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2 votes
4 answers
361 views

Should "διά" (dia) be translated as "through" or "because of" in the five NT verses pertaining to God creating the world for Jesus?

John 1:3 ESV All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. Or All things were made because of him, and without him was not any thing made that was made. ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
100 views

In Proverbs 8:30, does "Amon" mean "Beloved Child" or "Master Craftsman"?

There is great controversy surrounding this particular word. Many scholars say "amon" is translated as "master workman", but others say that it means "beloved child" or &...
Joshua B's user avatar
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0 votes
3 answers
79 views

Why do some translations render "ἰδοὺ" as "suddenly" and "look" instead of the original rendering of "behold"?

I've noticed a number of modern translations rendering ἰδοὺ as "look" or "suddenly". Shouldn't ἰδοὺ always be translated as "behold"? I find the other renderings to be ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
155 views

why does the ESV abandon it's word-for-word emphasis at the end of Revelation 10:6?

At the end of Revelation 10:6, translation of the phrase ὅτι χρόνος οὐκέτι ἔσται by the ESV does not appear to abide by the translation philosophy as the preface to that version states: "... '...
BrianG's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
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Does Acts 15:18 constitute the end of the Amos 9:11-12 quote, or the beginning of James' response to it?

Acts 15:13-21 ESV translation: 13 After they finished speaking, James replied, “Brothers, listen to me. 14 Simeon has related how God first visited the Gentiles, to take from them a people for his ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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6 votes
6 answers
1k views

Is Matthew 24:40 mistranslated in most English translations?

In context, Matthew 24:36-44 ESV reads as follows: 36 “But concerning that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only. 37 For as were the days of Noah, ...
Dieter's user avatar
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1 vote
4 answers
143 views

Deeper understanding of Isaiah 50:10 “walks in darkness” phrasing?

Related Posting: Does Psalm 18:21 verse's use of term "Not wickedly" mean that he did Not intentionally,Not purposely or Not deliberately depart from God? Isaiah 50 New American ...
user1338998's user avatar
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1 vote
3 answers
160 views

What is the correct translation of Exodus 17:16 about Amalek?

This passage has been difficult for translators with nearly every version rendering it differently and making notes of uncertainty. Different attempts at rendering the Hebrew words vary broadly. After ...
Joshua B's user avatar
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6 votes
2 answers
930 views

Why do some Bible translations differ on how Proverbs 16:31 is translated?

Some translations state that “gray hair is a crown of glory; it is found in the path of righteousness”, but other translations word it as “gray hair is a crown of glory if it is found in the path of ...
Courtney S.'s user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
68 views

Deeper contextual understanding of Isaiah 49:8 declaration that the Israelites will "inherit the desolate heritages"

Isaiah 49:7-9 NASB 1995 7 Thus says the Lord, the Redeemer of Israel and its Holy One, To the despised One, To the One abhorred by the nation, To the Servant of rulers, “Kings will see and arise, ...
user1338998's user avatar
  • 3,646
2 votes
2 answers
149 views

Why are "ha-adam" and "adam" often translated inconsistently in Genesis?

The word, adam, means “man” (SH 120) and it’s also a name, Adam (SH 121), and it can mean “red” (SH 119 with the same vowel points). Ha means “the” in Hebrew, so ha-adam means “the man.” I’m not ...
Dieter's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
36 views

Exodus 14:23 - The Death of Pharaoh and the Singular Grammar Used

Exodus 14:23 And the Egyptians pursued and went after them into the midst of the sea, all Pharaoh’s horses, his chariots, and his horsemen. What is the grammatical reason for the plurality of ...
Katie Rose Müller's user avatar
6 votes
6 answers
542 views

Can usage of Θεὸς in Luke 20:38 support the translation of Θεὸς as "God" and not "a god" in John 1:1?

In search of support for the translation of Θεὸς(theos) as "God" in John 1:1, I wanted to find a similar usage of theos - specifically at the beginning of a complete thought and without a ...
another-prodigal's user avatar
4 votes
3 answers
426 views

NASB translation of John 4:1

The NASB is supposed to be a very literal translation except where needed and my husband noticed that in john 4:1 it translates the name of Jesus as "Lord"; the ESV doesn't do this and ...
postTenebrasLux.'s user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
63 views

How does the NIV translation of Psalm 42:4 arrive at the phrase "under the protection of the Mighty One"?

In Psalm 42:4, the NIV translates the phrase כִּי אֶעֱבֹר בַּסָּךְ, אֶדַּדֵּם עַד-בֵּית אֱלֹהִים as "how I used to go to the house of God under the protection of the Mighty One" while the ...
Zac Aikman's user avatar
0 votes
2 answers
63 views

Translation choices for the words "pray" in Acts 7:59 and "appeal" in Acts 25:11

Biblehub shows the word "prayed" in Acts 7:59 used by the New International Version Bible is derived from the Greek ἐπικαλούμενον (epikaloumenon). This is the same word used in Acts 25:11 ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
86 views

Why do many English translations substitute “Merab” for “Michal” in 2 Samuel 21:8?

The Hebrew says: וְאֶת־חֲמֵ֗שֶׁת בְּנֵי֙ מִיכַ֣ל בַּת־שָׁא֔וּל אֲשֶׁ֥ר יָלְדָ֛ה לְעַדְרִיאֵ֥ל בֶּן־בַּרְזִלַּ֖י הַמְּחֹלָתִֽי My translation: and the five sons that Michal daughter of Shaul bore to ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
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0 votes
2 answers
91 views

According to the Hebrew Gospels of Matt 26:28, Mark 14:24 and Luke 22:19-20, was Jesus’ blood shed FOR many or BECAUSE OF many?

According to the Hebrew Gospels of Matthew 26:28, Mark 14:24 and Luke 22:19-20, was Jesus’ blood shed for many or because of many? The Greek uses peri and huper, and Aramaic S7191 D'aaKhLaaPH and ...
FanieO's user avatar
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5 votes
1 answer
173 views

Why is Isaiah 9:6 translated in the future tense

In different translations of Isaiah 9:6 we see (emphasis mine): ESV: For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called ...
User2280's user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
80 views

Why is Matthew 6:1 rendered "righteousness" in NIV and ESV when Strongs renders it mercy, compassion or alms?

In Matthew 6:1 the word ἐλεημοσύνην is translated as righteousness by both the NIV and the ESV, yet in Strong's concordance or Thayer's the meaning of the word seems consistently closer to "mercy&...
Jared Kirk's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
185 views

2 Thessalonians 2:8-9 - After/According to OR Against the Working of Satan?

The Scripture in Question 2 Thessalonians 2:8-9 And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming: [...
Katie Rose Müller's user avatar
4 votes
5 answers
1k views

What is the correct interpretation of Revelation 2:4?

There seem to be several interpretations of the admonition of Jesus to the church at Ephesus. Jesus first compliments the church at Ephesus for their labor, their endurance, their not tolerating evil, ...
Dieter's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
91 views

What is the justification for translating James 2:14b as "Can such faith save them?"?

The NSRV translates this verse correctly as … if you say you have faith but do not have works? Can faith save you? James 2:14 A variety of Christian translations render the verse a different way and ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
  • 1,189
3 votes
1 answer
666 views

Why do translators translate Luke 2:25 and 11:13 as "the Holy Spirit" instead of "a holy spirit"?

The Greek text here unambiguously says “a holy spirit” (pneuma [ēn] hagion) in both of these passages. However it appears that most Christian translations choose a different wording: He was waiting ...
Avi Avraham's user avatar
  • 1,189
1 vote
1 answer
48 views

Do we know why or how translators translated the persons' names the way they did?

For instance, we read the name in the English as Ahab, but the Strong's pronunciation is akh-awb' So in this case, the k sound is missing. Why are certain sounds missing if they are known? Example: ...
Steve's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
370 views

The meaning of "akoe" in Matthew 24:6

Matthew 24:6 says: You will hear of wars and rumors of wars, but see to it that you are not alarmed. Such things must happen, but the end is still to come. (NIV) The word "akoe" is ...
Kidburla's user avatar
  • 513
5 votes
3 answers
252 views

Whats the reasoning behind the "understands" vs "hears" in Acts 22:9 and Acts 9:7?

In Acts 22:9 (NASB): "And those who were with me saw the light, but did not understand the voice of the One who was speaking to me." And Acts 9:7 (NASB): "The men who traveled with him ...
User2280's user avatar
8 votes
6 answers
1k views

Prunes or Cleanses in John 15:1-4 ESV?

Most translations of John 15:1-4 read something like this: “I am the true vine, and my Father is the vinedresser. Every branch in me that does not bear fruit he takes away, and every branch that does ...
Dieter's user avatar
  • 2,294
3 votes
3 answers
451 views

Is Hosea 13:14, quoted by Apostle Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:55, oddly mistranslated?

Hosea 13:14 from the BSB translation: I will ransom them from the power of Sheol; I will redeem them from Death. Where, O Death, are your plagues? Where, O Sheol, is your sting? Compassion is hidden ...
Joshua B's user avatar
  • 1,071
-1 votes
2 answers
79 views

In Revelation 9:11, should the titles Abaddon and Apollyon be translated into English as "Destruction" and "Destroyer"?

Revelation 9:11 according to ESV translation: They have as king over them the angel of the bottomless pit. His name in Hebrew is Abaddon, and in Greek he is called Apollyon. Revelation 9:11 ...
Joshua B's user avatar
  • 1,071
1 vote
1 answer
23 views

Neh. 5:2 "We are forced to pawn our sons and daughters in order to get grain to eat that we may live.” (competent translation?)

In the Book of Nehemiah, the NABRE is virtually alone in interpreting the people's complaint about the lack of grain in terms of having to indenture their children. Other typical translations usually ...
Dan Fefferman's user avatar

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