Questions tagged [translation-philosophy]

The philosophical basis that grounds the work of translators. Questions about specific translation problems should instead be tagged hebrew, aramaic, or greek as appropriate.

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17
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9answers
75k views

Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?

Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts? ...
20
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7answers
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Does Granville Sharp's Rule indicate that “God” and “Savior” share a referent in Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1?

Granville Sharp's rule states that when a clause has two nouns (or other substantive) in the same case, connected by a copulative kai ("and"), that are not proper nouns (i.e. not someone's name), ...
12
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5answers
1k views

What were the translators of the LXX thinking in rendering “virgin” in Isaiah 7:14?

Obviously we can not know for certain what they were thinking, but with some knowledge about ancient interpretations of this text and the translation philosophy employed by the LXX, I suspect someone ...
2
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4answers
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Why does the ESV use “surely” in Genesis 2:16 when all others say “freely”?

Someone has brought it to my attention that the ESV deviates from all other English translations in Genesis 2:16 by changing "freely" to "surely." The ESV is heavily endorsed by ...
14
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12answers
5k views

How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the verse ...
54
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6answers
15k views

In Psalm 22:21 is the Bible speaking of “unicorns”?

I was reading Psalm 22 (from this question) and I found this verse: Psalms 22:21 (KJV) Save me from the lion's mouth: for thou hast heard me from the horns of the unicorns. When I switched ...
20
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4answers
1k views

Is ἐγώ εἰμι testified in extra-biblical Greek as an expression for saying “I am he”?

This question arises from this insightful answer to another question about John 8:58. That answer makes an argument that the Greek ἐγώ εἰμι (literally "I am") is the wording used to translate the ...
8
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2answers
462 views

Should the word 'satan' be left untranslated, merely be transliterated and left to the traditional connotations?

The word 'satan' is being used and heard as if it were a name. How could it be rendered in a way not distracting from its actual meaning of opposition and enmity? The texts where this is an issue are ...
7
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2answers
937 views

What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions?Is it “only” or “only-begotten”?

What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions? What are the rendering of μονογενής into Ancient Versions of the *NT passages? Hebrew Arabic: Ethiopic: Syriac (Aramaic): ...
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5answers
929 views

In Genesis 1, Did “The Bereshit” Create “God”?

According to Genesis 1:1: בראשית ברא אלהים את השמים ואת הארץ I've read that this is a grammatically incorrect because b'reshit does not have a definite article and the word order is wrong. ...
14
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3answers
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Did eve say “I have created a man just as the LORD did!”?

NET Version: "I have created a man just as the LORD did!" (Genesis 4:1) Most other translations have her giving credit to the Lord, whereas this one has her pretending to be a Godess. While this ...
7
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2answers
4k views

Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?

Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads: I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem, By gazelles or by hinds of the field: Do not wake or rouse Love until it please! As the NET Bible points out, ...
16
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4answers
3k views

Should the title in Isaiah 9 be translated?

Translators publishing for the Christian market translate the title in Isaiah 9:6: For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name ...
13
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3answers
12k views

What translation philosophies have caused such a wide variation in the translation of *tachash* skins?

In Exodus (e.g. 26:14), we learn one of the coverings for the tabernacle is to be made of "תחש" (tachash) skins. The translation of this term appears to be especially difficult or contentious as there ...
5
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3answers
9k views

Should the word elohim in Psalm 8:5 be translated into gods/angels/or god?

Should the word elohim in Psalm 8:5 be translated into gods/angels/or god? The NIV translates it this way: You have made them a little lower than the angels and crowned them with glory and honor. ...
18
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2answers
777 views

How does a Bible translator know if it is a poem?

Let's take 1 Tim 3:16 as an example among many others, where Paul wrote or quoted (ESV): Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery of godliness: He was manifested in the flesh, vindicated by the ...
8
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2answers
1k views

In 1 John 3:6, is “keeps on sinning” a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in 1611), ...
8
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3answers
1k views

Brothers *and sisters* in modern translations

In the New Century Version, passages in the New Testament that were addressed to "brothers" are now "brothers and sisters". For example: "Brothers and sisters, in the Scriptures the Holy Spirit ...
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2answers
1k views

Why is the word “honeycomb”, in Luke 24:42, missing from most Bible translations?

King James, together with a few other translations, has "fish and honeycomb" in Luke 24:42, while most other translations only mention "fish". Why is "honeycomb" missing? ...
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5answers
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Is there bible translation that is more literal than Young Literal Translation [closed]

That's it. The translation should not favor any theology and should allow readers to read texts the way it really is For example Elohim -> gods Yea, I know that Elohim are often followed by ...
6
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3answers
186 views

Was Psalms 45:6 In our bibles a mistranslation (King instead of God)?

And why did the author of Hebrews quoted from this verse if it was badly translated? I'd really appreciate any help I could get because I'm having difficulties with this. Thanks
5
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1answer
479 views

Is Hosea 6:1-3 a quotation?

Many translations wrap Hosea 6:1-3 in quotation marks. For instance, in the NJPS: “Come, let us turn back to the Lord: He attacked, and He can heal us; He wounded, and He can bind us up. In ...
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1answer
83 views

(1 John 3:5-10 & 1 John 5:18)Alexandrian manuscripts relatively practical, level-headed while Byzantine manuscripts are rhetorical hyperbole-like

As I was reading 1 John 3:5-10 & 1 John 5:18 in different bible translations belonging to either the Byzantine family or the Alexandrian family of manuscripts. I noticed that the Alexandrian ...
12
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5answers
3k views

What does the Greek word θεότητος in Colossians 2:9 mean?

The Greek word θεότητος is translated differently in English Bibles: Colossians 2:9 New Living Translation For in Christ lives all the fullness of God in a human body. New American ...
10
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2answers
267 views

How are statistical comparisons between bible translations calculated?

(This arose from this question which was in turn triggered by this answer.) Quoting Jack Douglas quoting Wayne Grudem: In "The advantages of the ESV” by Wayne Grudem, he states that the 2001 ...
10
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4answers
898 views

How is the New World Translation's usage of “Jehovah” controversial?

The New World Translation transliterates the Tetragrammaton as “Jehovah”. Why does this translation choose to transliterate the Tetragrammaton this way? How was the choice made to use the ...
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12answers
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Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?

I already assumed the opposite in an answer to why there are so many Bible translations, on Christianity.SE. Now that we have an expert community, I'd like to check. The translators of the New World ...
13
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5answers
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What is the Fear/fear of Isaac?

The ESV renders Genesis 31:42 like so (emphasis mine): If the God of my father, the God of Abraham and the Fear of Isaac, had not been on my side, surely now you would have sent me away empty-...
13
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2answers
557 views

Why do English translations sometimes, but not always, transform names instead of just transliterating them?

When translating a text you have to deal with names. While occasionally names are translated "semantically" (according to their meaning), usually we just keep the name as a name -- approximately. ...
11
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4answers
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Why are Hebrew verbs in the “perfect” form so often translated as present tense in modern translations?

Why are Hebrew verbs in the "perfect" form so often translated as present tense in modern translations? For example in Psalm 119:47 : וְאֶשְׁתַּֽעֲשַׁ֥ע בְּמִצְוֹתֶ֗יךָ אֲשֶׁ֣ר אָהָֽבְתִּי׃ Most ...
11
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5answers
8k views

Why it is translated “Be filled by the Spirit” (Eph 5:18-20)

"And do not get drunk with wine, which is debauchery, but be filled by the Spirit, speaking to one another in psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, singing and making music in your hearts to the ...
10
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9answers
5k views

What basis do we have for defining Sabbatismos in Hebrews 4:9?

The word, Sabbatismos occurs in the Greek NT only once. Strongest Strong's defines it as Sabbath rest; Sabbath observance. Thayer's/Strong's defines it as a Sabbath keeping. Various English ...
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3answers
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Is Jesus the λόγος in Hebrews 4:12?

For the word of God is alive and active. Sharper than any double-edged sword, it penetrates even to dividing soul and spirit, joints and marrow; it judges the thoughts and attitudes of the heart ( ...
16
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5answers
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“which translated means…”

I am told that many scholars believe that the words of Jesus which we have presented to us in Greek were originally spoken in Aramaic. What confuses me then is why there are instances in the Greek ...
9
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1answer
213 views

Does the postfixed χ in Jewish Greek transliterations simply denote the aleph, i.e. vs. other vowels?

The Hebrew א and the Greek χ (especially in their typical manuscript form) look very similar. 'Jewish Greek' (Septuagintic/Diaspora/NT Greek) already being an insiders language (inasmuch it's ...
8
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3answers
5k views

What, exactly, counts as a “vain repetition” (Matthew 6:7)?

I answered a question on Christianity.SE which focused on Christian prayer in light of Matthew 6:7: But when ye pray, use not vain repetitions, as the heathen do: for they think that they shall be ...
5
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1answer
176 views

“Do not lead us into temptation” is a bad translation?

In a sermon by Randy Pope, he mentions that "do not lead us into temptation" is a "horrible" and "misleading" translation of Matthew 6:13 (around the 11:40 mark). καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς ...
4
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3answers
527 views

Why did Tyndale (1525) not capitalize 'word' in John 1:1?

In the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God. John 1:1 (Tyndale Bible 1534 by William Tyndale) Why did Tyndale (1525) did not capitalize 'word' in John 1:1?
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3answers
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Should John 1:18 be translated differently?

Assuming that John 1:18 actually says theos instead of huios, and monogenes means one of a kind or unique, the Greek says: θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ...
4
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1answer
194 views

Should Genesis 8:10 read “he waited” or “he waited anxiously”?

In Genesis 8:10 the first word in the MT is ויחל. The Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia (BHS) suggests emending to וייחל. Everyone seems to accept the BHS and translate this as "waited" just as if the ...
0
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2answers
159 views

Since at Galatians 1:1 Father is appositional to θεός but Son is never in the NT, how does this make them θεός differently?

Since at Galatians 1:1 "Father" is appositional to θεός but "Son" is never in the NT, how does this make them θεός differently? Daniel Wallace says: it would be wrong to say &...
10
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2answers
988 views

Daniel 7:27 translation

I hope someone can help me with this one. Question - What is the correct translation of end of Daniel 7:27? Is it Him (God) or it (kingdom)? As much as I looked, all English translations say Him - ...
8
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4answers
1k views

Is there a difference between “the sin” and “sin” in Romans?

In the Youngs Literal Translation, Romans 5:12 reads Romans 5:12 because of this, even as through one man the sin did enter into the world, and through the sin the death; and thus to all men the ...
7
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1answer
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Why does Matthew use the plural form of “Key(s)” as opposed to other singular references according to the original Greek texts?

The word "Key" is referred to a few times in Scripture: 22 And I will give him the glory of David; and he shall rule, and there shall be none to speak against him: and I will give him the key (...
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3answers
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In Genesis 11:1, what is the difference in Hebrew between the word “language” and the word “speech”?

Genesis 11:1 (KJV): And the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech. The English translation seems to be redundant here, ie language and speech. In doing some prelim research into ...
6
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2answers
6k views

English Bible translations based on the Vulgate

Which well-known English Bible translations are based on the Vulgate? Which are not? Knowledge about other languages (e.g. French) is welcome too.
5
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1answer
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Why are the scriptures so heavily punctuated with colons and semicolons?

It's confusing to me the way colons and semicolons are added to the text. I find myself hampered when I'm reading because I have to gloss over the punctuation in order to read what is said. Why is it ...
5
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1answer
366 views

Translation of 1 John 3:2

I recently ran across a proposed alternative translation of 1 John 3:2. I provide here the NA28 (with punctuation omitted for the sake of ignoring the editors’ interpretive opinion), the ESV (because ...
4
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4answers
195 views

In Ephesians 2:2 is Paul speaking of “the course” of the world or “Aeon of the world”?

NIV Eph 2:2 in which you used to live when you followed the ways of this world and of the ruler of the kingdom of the air, the spirit who is now at work in those who are disobedient. MGNT 2:2 ἐν αἷς ...
4
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2answers
717 views

Should Genesis 2:16 say “you shall surely eat”?

The Hebrew language uses an idiom in which two occurances of the same word is used side by side. From what I understand, this is meant to show emphasis. Genesis 2:16 in the KJV says: And the LORD God ...