Questions tagged [syntax]
For questions about the linguistic structures of sentences; should be used with the corresponding language tag.
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Rule for Waw with dagesh or not? [closed]
I'm reading through my Hebrew. And I'm bumping into waws with dageshes in the middle of them and others without. Way back in class I remember that there was a rule for this. But I can't remember what ...
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Why does John use a double "Verily, verily," (John 1:53, et al.) when the other Gospel writers use only one?
"Verily I say unto you" is common in Matthew, Mark, and Luke, but John consistently uses the double "Verily, verily (Gk.amen, amen). (3:3, 3:5, 3:11, 5:19, 5:24, 25, 6:26, 32, 47, 53, 8:...
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Does the Hebrew verb in Genesis 1:1-3 for "God said" imply an instant act of creation (perhaps like the Greek aorist tense)?
So what can be deduced from the Hebrew verb as to the creation process? Instantaneous fiat event, or long drawn out process? Or an obscure meaning, indefinite as to time?
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Acts 16:34 - He did what with his family?
In Acts 16:34, what verb does the adverb "πανοικεί" ("with the entire household/family") modify and how are we to make such a determination?
Some translation, such as the ESV, ...
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What is the difference between Acts 10:44 - "the Holy Spirit," and v 45 - "the Holy Spirit?"
The interlinear Grk. feature to my Bible software helps with interpretation, digging deeper for original meaning. The syntax is helpful though I have no formal training here!
In verse 44, the ...
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Hebrews 9:27 speaks of things "after" death?
In Hebrews 9:27 (the strongs concordance numbers listed below) the Greek word "meta" is translated using the concept of "after" in most versions of the Bible.
Heb 9:27 And <...
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Is verse diagramming important to hermeneutics? [closed]
Just wondering if verse diagramming is vital to exegesis and hermeneutics.
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What logical, biblical or exegetical reason is there for referring to the 'Word' as Jesus before Jesus was born? [closed]
In John 1:1-3 we read of 'the Word' - in the beginning, was with God etc.
The Word becoming flesh happened around 4 BC (give or take)
Can we justifiably say, infer or imply, 'In the beginning was ...
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In 1 Timothy 6:5, (gain is godliness) or (godliness is gain)?
I read 1timothy 6:5 in Arabic versions of the Bible, it was: التقوى تجارة which means: godliness is trade or (gain).
But the meaning that fits with the chapter (chapter 6) is: trade or gain is ...
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In Genesis 18:21 is the LORD's purpose in personally visiting Sodom to see if they will abuse him?
[Gen 18:21 YLT] (21) I go down now, and see whether according to its cry which is coming unto Me they have done completely -- and if not -- I know;'
We know that the men of Sodom did in fact attempt ...
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In Job 33:23 what does "what constitutes his uprightness" mean?
Job 33:
23 אִם־יֵשׁ עָלָיו׀ מַלְאָךְ מֵלִיץ אֶחָד מִנִּי־אָלֶף לְהַגִּיד לְאָדָם יָשְׁרֹו׃
NET 23 If there is an angel beside him,
one mediator out of a thousand,
to tell a person what ...
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Is Psalm 121:1 a question or an assertion?
I don't read Hebrew and I'm wondering why Psalm 121:1 is posed by so many translators as a question instead of an assertion:
https://www.blueletterbible.org/nlt/psa/121/1/s_599001
It seems to me that ...
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In Psalm 22:20 is there a change to singular animals?
In Psalm 22 the Messiah refers to his enemies in the plural until verse 20. Is the singular in verse 20 a particular singular enemy or is this still the same plural referent only singular in form? Is ...
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How does the grammar influence the meaning in «ἡ κατὰ θεὸν λύπη» and «ἡ τοῦ κόσμου λύπη» in 2 Corinthians 7:10?
The Greek text of 2 Corinthians 7:10 according to the Nestle-Aland 28th ed. states,
Ιʹ ἡ γὰρ κατὰ θεὸν λύπη μετάνοιαν εἰς σωτηρίαν ἀμεταμέλητον ἐργάζεται· ἡ δὲ τοῦ κόσμου λύπη θάνατον κατεργάζεται. ...
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Does the wording of 1 Samuel 18:21 suggest David was already married to Merab when Saul offered him Michal?
וַיֹּ֨אמֶר שָׁא֜וּל אֶתְּנֶ֤נָּה לֹּו֙ וּתְהִי־לֹ֣ו לְמֹוקֵ֔שׁ וּתְהִי־בֹ֖ו יַד־פְּלִשְׁתִּ֑ים וַיֹּ֤אמֶר שָׁאוּל֙ אֶל־דָּוִ֔ד בִּשְׁתַּ֛יִם תִּתְחַתֵּ֥ן בִּ֖י הַיֹּֽום׃ (WLC)
“I will give her [Michal]...
user28665
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How should Isaiah 59:19 be translated and understood?
YLT Isaiah 59:19 And they fear from the west the name of Jehovah, And from the rising of the sun -- His honour, When come in as a flood doth an adversary, The Spirit of Jehovah hath raised an ensign ...
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Does the Didache dictate that the "Lord's Supper" was to involve a real meal?
A commentary I came across said that the Didache indicated that its audience would have a meal in conjunction with the "Eucharist" but when I looked for the reference it seems it is ambiguous (of ...
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Revelation 9:14 - are the angels/messengers bound at the Euphrates, or released there?
Revelation 9:14 YLT:
...
saying to the sixth messenger who had the trumpet, 'Loose the four messengers who are bound at the great river Euphrates;'
...
Is it:
...'Loose the four messengers who are ...
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What is Job's complaint in Job 24:1?
Young's Literal has this:
YLT Job 24:1 Wherefore from the Mighty One Times have not been hidden,
And those knowing Him have not seen His days.
There seems to be some concern about the "times" ...
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What is Job 24:22 saying about the powerful?
Some take this to say that God establishes the powerful, others that he "drags them away".
The ESV says God "prolongs" the life of the powerful:
ESV Job 24:22: Yet God prolongs ...
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In Matthew 5:3 what kind of dative is "τῷ πνεύματι"?
Disclaimer: I have no formal education in Koine.
NASB/GNT Matthew 5:
3 “Blessed are the poor in spirit, for the kingdom of heaven belongs
to them.
3 Μακάριοι οἱ πτωχοὶ τῷ πνεύματι, ὅτι ...
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Why is the word 'anti' used in Ephesians 5:31 instead of 'heneka' when quoting Genesis 2:24?
Both Ephesians 5:31 and Matthew 19:5 quote Genesis 2:24:
'For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined
to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.'
However in ...
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Hebrews 12:2 "for the joy" or "instead of the joy"?
Hbr 12:1-2 keeping our eyes fixed on Jesus, the pioneer and perfecter
of our faith. For the joy set out for him he endured the cross,
disregarding its shame, and has taken his seat at the right ...
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In Romans 11:11 who is made jealous of whom?
YLT Rom 11:11 I say, then, Did they stumble that they might fall? let
it not be! but by their fall the salvation is to the nations, to
arouse them to jealousy;
Do the fallen Jews make the ...
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Which is the main verb of the sentence in 2 Peter 1,3-4?
I have been struggling to locate the main verb in the sentence that comprises 2 Peter 1,3-4. NA28 gives full stops at the end of verses 2 and 4. Thus, if verses 3-4 are punctuated as a complete ...
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In Romans 12:1 - What is "Therefore" there for?
Question:
In Romans 12:1 - What is "Therefore" there for?
Is "therefore" there to indicate that Paul is concluding an argument? If so, what was the justification that Paul gave ...
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In Jeremiah 29:8 what kind of dream was Israel not to listen to?
In Jeremiah, which dreams is God saying to not listen to?
NKJV, Jeremiah 29:8 - For thus says the Lord of hosts, the God of Israel: Do not let your prophets and your diviners who are in your ...
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John 7:22 - Why Did Moses Give the Commandment of Circumcision?
1. Greek Syntax Questions:
Looking at the Greek Syntax - what is the reason Moses "gave circumcision"?
What does the text, its context, and the syntax of the passage indicate?
2. The Text:
In John ...
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Is James 2:14 two questions or one?
Τί τὸ ὄφελος ἀδελφοί μου ἐὰν πίστιν λέγῃ τις ἔχειν ἔργα
δὲ μὴ ἔχῃ μὴ δύναται ἡ πίστις σῶσαι αὐτόν
what the profit brothers of me if faith say anyone to have works
however not has not is able ...
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1 Cor. 12:24-25 What was done to prevent schism?
In 1 Corinthians 12:24-25 (KJV) which states,
For our comely parts have no need: but God hath tempered the body together, having given more abundant honour to that part which lacked: That there ...
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In Luke 22, How Should Prepare and Eat - be Translated from the Aorist Subjunctive?
Related:
- In Luke 22:16: Does the Syntax Indicate if Jesus Was not Going to Eat THAT Passover?
1. Question:
In Mark 14 and Luke 22, how should "Prepare" and "Eat" be translated from the Aorist ...
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How should Genesis 3:4 be punctuated?
In English usually after the word said we add a comma and a quote to designate when the speech began. In Hebrew I hope for some sort of structure language law. As an example:
Genesis 3:4 (Hebrew OT,...
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Philippians 2:12 - How should "Work Out" be interpreted?
1. Question
In Phil 2:12, How should "Work" be translated, and why is "Out" injected?
Setting aside doctrinal presuppositions of faith/work/eternal salvation --
Phil 2:12, NASB - ...
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Rev 20:7-8 Syntax: Gog and Magog in apposition to what?
Revelation of John 20:7-8 SBLGNT
7 Καὶ ὅταν τελεσθῇ τὰ χίλια ἔτη, λυθήσεται ὁ Σατανᾶς ἐκ τῆς φυλακῆς
αὐτοῦ, 8 καὶ ἐξελεύσεται πλανῆσαι τὰ ἔθνη τὰ ἐν ταῖς τέσσαρσι γωνίαις
τῆς γῆς, τὸν Γὼγ ⸀ ...
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In Hebrews 9:22, How Should "Almost" be Interpreted, and What does it Apply to?
1. Question Clarification of the Greek Syntax :
How should the word "Almost, [σχεδὸν]" be understood in Hebrews 9:22, and what does it apply to, in view of Greek Syntax, and especially in ...
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