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Tagged with satan translation-philosophy
6 questions
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Why NRSVUE render different translations from the same word "satan"?
In Hebrew, the word satan is not a name, so as in english, we're allowed to add the definite article before it in hebrew as well.
From wikipedia:
When used without the definite article (simply satan),...
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Had [satan] set [his] heart against Job?
In Job 1:8 & again in 2:3 the LORD asks [hasatan] about Job. The verse is almost universally translated "Have [you] considered My servant Job?" This may be influenced in part because ...
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Why is Satan referred to as the tempter the first time he tempts Jesus and then referred to as Satan or the Devil the other two times?
In the desert when Jesus was being tempted while fasting, is there any significance to the writer referring to Satan as the tempter the first time and the Devil the other two times?
Matt 4:3 - The ...
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Do translators leave out the definite article of Satan in the New Testament?
It is well known that in many cases in the Old Testament that whenever Satan is described, it is accompanied by a definite article rendering it as ‘Ha-Satan’ (The Satan).
(This question will not go ...
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What did the serpent really ask in Genesis 3:1?
One nuance of the meaning of the serpent's question hinges on the translation of מִכֹּל עֵץ (Gen 3:1). Translated as "from every tree" or "from any tree" basically determines whether the serpent ...
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Should the word 'satan' be left untranslated, merely be transliterated and left to the traditional connotations?
The word 'satan' is being used and heard as if it were a name. How could it be rendered in a way not distracting from its actual meaning of opposition and enmity?
The texts where this is an issue are ...
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