Questions tagged [romans]

Paul's letter to the church in Rome.

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What does "through him" mean in Romans 11:36?

Romans 11:36 (ESV): For from him and through him and to him are all things. Two thoughts: "Through" a person, him, is very personal. The nails that kept Jesus on the cross went through him ...
1 vote
3 answers
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In James 2:23, does the use of the word "fulfilled" (ἐπληρώθη) suggest that Genesis 15:6 was a prophecy about the future (IE: Genesis 22:12)?

[Jas 2:20-26 NASB] (20) But are you willing to recognize, you foolish fellow, that faith without works is useless? (21) Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up Isaac his son ...
11 votes
8 answers
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Why would God create vessels of wrath prepared for destruction (Romans 9:21-22) if He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 33:11)?

Ezekiel 33:11 11 Say to them, As I live, declares the Lord God, I have no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but that the wicked turn from his way and live; turn back, turn back from your evil ways,...
7 votes
5 answers
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Do the 'vessels of wrath' have libertarian free will? Romans 9:14-24

Romans 9:14-24 (ESV): 14 What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God's part? By no means! 15 For he says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I ...
1 vote
4 answers
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How do we reconcile Luke 11:42 with Romans 8:8?

We compare: Then the Lord said to him, “Now you Pharisees make the outside of the cup and dish clean, but your inward part is full of greed and wickedness. Foolish ones! Did not He who made the ...
3 votes
1 answer
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How do we reconcile Romans 3:11 with Acts 17

We compare: ‭‭Romans‬ ‭3:11‬: There is none who understands, There is none who seeks for God; Acts 17:27: that they would seek God, if perhaps they might grope for Him and find Him, though He is not ...
4 votes
1 answer
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Is the NWT translation of Σαβαὼθ in Romans 9:29 reasonable?

Σαβαὼθ, Sabaoth is the Greek transcription of צְבָאוֹת, plural of צָבָא=army, in a name applied to God κύριος Σ.=יהוָה צְבָאוֹת Yahweh Lord of the Armies, Lord of Hosts.1 Paul uses this word in Romans:...
2 votes
2 answers
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Do Acts 1:8 and Romans 1:16 refer to different types of power?

8 But you will receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you, and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem and in all Judea and Samaria, and to the end of the earth.” (Acts 1:8 ESV) 16 For I am ...
3 votes
2 answers
345 views

Romans 1:23 an allusion to Ezekiel 8:10?

Romans 1:23 KJV And changed the glory of the uncorruptible God into an image made like to corruptible man, and to birds, and fourfooted beasts, and creeping things. Ezekiel 8:10 KJV So I went in ...
12 votes
6 answers
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Why did death reign from Adam to Moses?

Rom. 5:14 says: Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. In what way ...
10 votes
6 answers
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According to Romans 1:3-4, did the resurrection "make" the Son of God or "declare" the Son of God?

concerning His Son, (who is come of the seed of David according to the flesh, who is marked out Son of God in power, according to the Spirit of sanctification, by the rising again from the dead,) ...
1 vote
1 answer
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What is the difference between "old man" in Romans 6:6 and "flesh" in Romans 8:1?

What is the difference between "old man" in Romans 6:6 Knowing this, that our old man is crucified with him, that the body of sin might be destroyed, that henceforth we should not serve sin. ...
1 vote
4 answers
262 views

Why is man condemned if he is incapable of doing good?

Romans 7:15 - 20 has always puzzled me. Why would God condemn sinful humans if man is incapable of helping himself as Paul states in these verses? Even the so-called born again (regenerated) ...
3 votes
1 answer
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Are Paul (Romans 10:11-17) and Jesus (John 6:44) describing different methods or different aspects of a single method to win souls?

Romans 10:11-17 (ESV) 11 For the Scripture says, “Everyone who believes in him will not be put to shame.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, ...
2 votes
2 answers
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Is Paul saying that Jews will be saved in Romans 4:16?

So the promise is received by faith. It is given as a free gift. And we are all certain to receive it, whether or not we live according to the law of Moses, if we have faith like Abraham's. For ...
3 votes
4 answers
227 views

Is the name of God in Romans 2:24 the same as the name of the Lord in Leviticus 24:16?

Romans 6:24; KJV; 24 For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written. Leviticus 24:16; KJV; 16 And he that blasphemeth the name of the Lord, he shall surely be ...
2 votes
4 answers
180 views

Must literal confession be made before someone is saved according Romans 10:9,10?

In Romans 10:9, 10 Paul said: That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. For with the ...
6 votes
3 answers
93 views

Is the tax collector in Luke 18:14 saved according to Rom 3:28?

Luke 18:13 But the tax collector stood at a distance. He would not even look up to heaven, but beat his breast and said, ‘God, have mercy on me, a sinner.’ 14 I tell you that this man, rather than the ...
46 votes
13 answers
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Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

Also known by the more pedestrian title: How should Romans 9:5 be punctuated? Romans 9:5, NA28 (punctuation omitted): ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς ...
2 votes
1 answer
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Does Romans 7:2-3 implicitly condemn polyandry as adulterous?

To set up a point about a Christian's relationship to the law, Paul first gives the following illustration of marriage in Romans 7:2-3 (NKJV, emphasis mine): For the woman who has a husband is bound ...
8 votes
7 answers
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3. In The Parable of the Pearl, Mat13:45-46 how does one reconcile the phrase, “and bought it” with the Gospel of Jesus Christ?

I’m have a hard time understanding the Parable of the Pearl. Mat.13:45-46. All of the Pastors I’ve talked to explain it this way; the merchant man is the sinners in the world and the pearl of great ...
2 votes
3 answers
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What does "obey the truth" mean in Romans 2:8?

What does obey the truth mean in this verse? Romans 2:8 but for those who are self-seeking and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, there will be wrath and fury. What is the truth ...
3 votes
2 answers
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Is the writer of James attacking Paul's position?

In James 2:14-16,24 (NASB) What use is it, my brothers and sisters, if someone says he has faith, but he has no works? Can that faith save him? If a brother or sister is without clothing and in need ...
2 votes
1 answer
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What does it mean for the government to "praise" those who do good (1 Pet. 2:13-14; Rom. 13:3)?

My question pertains to two passages. The first one, 1 Peter 2:13-14 reads (NKJV), Therefore submit yourselves to every ordinance of man for the Lord’s sake, whether to the king as supreme, or to ...
7 votes
1 answer
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Question about punctuation in the Romans; specifically regarding Romans 8:20

In Romans 8:19-21, we read about creation waiting for things to be restored because it was subjected to "frustration." NIV: 19 For the creation waits in eager expectation for the children ...
2 votes
3 answers
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Romans 16:20 what is the meaning of 'under your feet'?

The God of peace will soon crush Satan under your feet. The last letter to the Roman church with lots of greetings and encouragements. And a few warnings. Immediate context is; 17 Now I urge you, ...
9 votes
5 answers
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Translation of Romans 7:5 sinful passions aroused by the law

Many translations of Romans 7:5 have a phrase like "the sinful passions which were aroused by the law". This seems puzzling to me because it doesn't make sense that the law would "...
3 votes
3 answers
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( Romans 1:26 ) firstly associating women, and then secondly only mentions men in the sin of homosexuality

Since most English translations of the Bible use the masculine nouns and pronouns for gender, what kind of deeper understanding can we get from the fact that in ( Romans 1:26 ) verse that starts off ...
1 vote
2 answers
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What is Paul saying in Romans 1:4?

[Romans 1:4 MGNT] (4) τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν δυνάμει κατὰ πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης ἐξ ἀναστάσεως νεκρῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Here are a couple of English translations: [Romans 1:4 NASB20] (4) ...
2 votes
2 answers
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Implications of Romans 8:33-39 regarding the afterlife?

Romans 8:33-39 (ESV): 33 Who shall bring any charge against God's elect? It is God who justifies. 34 Who is to condemn? Christ Jesus is the one who died—more than that, who was raised—who is at the ...
2 votes
1 answer
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In what way does Paul explain ἄφεσις, forgiveness or release of sin in Romans?

In Matthew's account of the Last Supper, Jesus speaks about the significance of His blood: for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. (Matthew 26:...
2 votes
10 answers
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In Romans 6:16 why does Paul say that obedience leads to righteousness, when righteousness is God's freely given gift?

Romans 6:16 (ESV) says: Do you not know that if you present yourselves to anyone as obedient slaves, you are slaves of the one whom you obey, either of sin, which leads to death, or of obedience, ...
4 votes
4 answers
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What is the significance of the different words Paul uses to describe death, dead, and being put to death when writing about sin and the law?

Throughout Romans, Paul writes about the dead, death, and being put to death. A few examples, resurrection from the dead (1:4), being dead to sin (6:2), and raised from the dead (4:24). But he uses ...
10 votes
9 answers
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According to Romans 5, is death caused by individual sin, or Adam's sin?

In Romans 5, Paul says: Romans 5:12 (ESV) 12  Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned— Which ...
-1 votes
1 answer
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Romans 10:17 - the absence of article means salvation comes by rhema of Christ not logos?

I would like to know the importance of the absence of an article in greek NT. In Romans 10:17 I see a commentary of a preacher saying that to understand salvific faith we need to see interpretation of ...
1 vote
2 answers
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James 1:12-16; DRB; is Jesus the only innocent Human being who is tempted? [closed]

James 1:12-16; DRB; 12 Blessed is the man that endureth temptation; for when he hath been proved, he shall receive a crown of life, which God hath promised to them that love him. 13 Let no man, when ...
3 votes
3 answers
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What is the full meaning of " propitiation" in the first segment of Romans 3:25 in the King James version?

In Romans chapter 3:25 Paul writes "Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood," the whom being Jesus Christ. Paul developes Romans and his understanding of our ...
2 votes
4 answers
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In Romans chapter 6, what does Paul mean by "death"? Biological death? Spiritual death? Some figurative meaning of death? All of them?

Romans 6 (ESV): What shall we say then? Are we to continue in sin that grace may abound? 2 By no means! How can we who died to sin still live in it? 3 Do you not know that all of us who have been ...
11 votes
2 answers
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In Romans 3:26, why not translate dikaiosunēs as "justice" rather than "righteousness?"

In the following passage there are four different Greek words sharing the same root. Romans 3:23-26 (ESV) for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and are justified by his grace ...
8 votes
3 answers
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Does Paul allude to the context of Psalm 19:4 in Romans 10:18?

In Romans 10:17, Paul says that hearing comes through the word of Christ. Then in verse 18, he quotes the Psalmist in response to the question, "But I ask, have they [the Israelites] not heard?" ...
2 votes
3 answers
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What is the difference between Israel stumbling and falling in Romans 11:11?

Romans 11:11 (NASB) I say then, they did not stumble so as to fall, did they? May never be! But by their transgression salvation has come to the Gentiles, to make them jealous. What is the ...
1 vote
1 answer
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What does it mean that Jesus is "Lord both of the dead and of the living" (Romans 14:9)?

Romans 14:7-9 (ESV): 7 For none of us lives to himself, and none of us dies to himself. 8 For if we live, we live to the Lord, and if we die, we die to the Lord. So then, whether we live or whether ...
5 votes
4 answers
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Did Paul believe in a place called 'the abyss' that houses the spirits/souls of the dead? Romans 10:7

Romans 10:5-7 (ESV): 5 For Moses writes about the righteousness that is based on the law, that the person who does the commandments shall live by them. 6 But the righteousness based on faith says, “...
1 vote
2 answers
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(Romans 2:16) why does Paul tie judgment with the good news?

When interpreting the doctrine of the Gospel {euangelion, εὐαγγέλιον} in 1 Corinthians 15, we read of a fairly simple explanation of the “good news”: “Moreover, brethren, I declare to you the gospel ...
2 votes
1 answer
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Psalms 53:2-3 vs Romans 3:10-11 “all turned aside/none seek after God”

Between the variants of the Psalms & Romans it would appear that Paul added the words “there is none who seeks after God” when it would also appear he is quoting the psalms: “God looks down from ...
0 votes
3 answers
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Romans 1:21 “nor were thankful/or give thanks” how do we interpret this?

I’ve studied Romans 1:18-32 for some time, so I understand the context. God’s wrath being revealed from Heaven against godless humanity who rejects God & His revelation. Yet, there is a ...
1 vote
1 answer
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Isaiah 25:6-9 “feast” vs Romans 14:17

We read that God is preparing a banquet for His people in the future, wine is mentioned for example: “And in this mountain The Lord of hosts will make for all people A feast of choice pieces, A feast ...
9 votes
8 answers
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Is it possible to have saving faith in Jesus Christ if one has misunderstood who the Jesus Christ of scripture really is? Romans 1:1-4

I ask because of noting how chapter 1 of Romans deals with the person of Christ – who he is – while not dealing with what he has done to save sinners until chapter 3. Could this be significant? I read ...
4 votes
1 answer
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What does "righteous judgement" mean in Romans 2:5?

Romans 2:5 "But because of your hard and impenitent heart you are storing up wrath for yourself on the day of wrath when God's righteous judgement will be revealed". ESV. My emphasis. It ...
3 votes
2 answers
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How do we understand the personification of sin in Romans 7?

Romans 7:11,14 (NASB) …for sin, taking an opportunity through the commandment, deceived me and through it killed me…For we know that the Law is spiritual, but I am of the flesh, sold into bondage to ...

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