Questions tagged [new-testament]

The second major part of the Christian Bible. Questions about specific texts should only be tagged with the name of the text. This tag is reserved for questions related to a collection of texts within the New Testament rather than only one individual text within this collection.

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
21
votes
6answers
4k views

What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament?

Many Nestorian and some Seventh Day Adventist scholars assert that the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic (such as Paul Younan and George Lamsa). What scholarly arguments exist that would ...
11
votes
16answers
4k views

What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?

In the New Testament the city of Babylon is mentioned a few times. Notably in the book of Revelation: 6Then I saw another angel flying in midair, and he had the eternal gospel to proclaim to ...
10
votes
3answers
3k views

Why is Hadēs translated as "hell"?

In Matt. 16:18 (KJV), it is written, And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. κἀγὼ δέ σοι λέγω ὅτι ...
7
votes
2answers
1k views

What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions?Is it "only" or "only-begotten"?

What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions? What are the rendering of μονογενής into Ancient Versions of the *NT passages? Hebrew Arabic: Ethiopic: Syriac (Aramaic): ...
3
votes
2answers
221 views

What does μή μου ἅπτου mean in John 20:17?

Much depends on how you translate the present middle imperative verb ἅπτου. Robertson's interpretation is "stop clinging" because "don't touch" would be aorist middle imperative. ...
1
vote
5answers
1k views

How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17?

How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17? κόσμος has obviously different meanings as used in the following two passages. For God so loved the world, that he gave ...
20
votes
11answers
63k views

What did Jesus mean by "be perfect" in the Sermon on the Mount?

I asked this on the Christianity Stack Exchange site, and they told me it would be better here. So I here I am asking it... Therefore you shall be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is perfect. ...
10
votes
4answers
1k views

What is the difference in meaning between the phrases «Χριστός Ἰησοῦς» (“Christ Jesus”) and «Ἰησοῦς Χριστός» (“Jesus Christ”)?

In the New Testament, sometimes the authors use «Χριστός Ἰησοῦς» (“Christ Jesus”), where «Χριστός» precedes «Ἰησοῦς»,1 yet other times they use «Ἰησοῦς Χριστός» (“Jesus Christ”).2 What is the ...
4
votes
7answers
824 views

Hebrews 5:7, Did Jesus suffer death or not?

Hebrews 5:7 (DRB): Who in the days of his flesh, with a strong cry and tears, offering up prayers and supplications to him that was able to save him from death, was heard for his reverence. The ...
18
votes
10answers
5k views

How did Judas die? How can the stories in Matthew and Acts be reconciled?

In fact, there are multiple discrepancies between these two verses, what did really happen? Matthew 27:5-8 5 And he cast down the pieces of silver in the temple, and departed, and went and hanged ...
9
votes
2answers
3k views

What portions of the New Testament are purported to have originally been written in Aramaic?

I am wondering what portions of the New Testament are purported to have originally been written in Aramaic, and by whom. I am aware that Seventh Day Adventist and Nestorian scholars often assert ...
7
votes
7answers
28k views

Does the New Testament use the divine name "Yahweh"?

"Yahweh" is a Hebrew word meaning "I am" and is the name by which God identified Himself in the Old Testament. What I am wondering is if (from a NT perspective) the name "Yahweh" has any significance, ...
3
votes
2answers
727 views

What did “the good wine” (τὸν καλὸν οἶνον) mean in John 2:10?

What did “the good wine” (τὸν καλὸν οἶνον) mean in John 2:10? and said to him, “Everyone serves the good wine first, and when people have drunk freely, then the poor wine. But you have kept the good ...
6
votes
4answers
748 views

Was John in the Spirit on the "Day of the Lord" or "Sunday" in Revelation 1:10?

I have a translation of the New Testament in my hands, in which Revelation 1:10 is rendered as "I was in the Spirit on Sunday". When I looked up the same verse in some other translations, I saw "I was ...
7
votes
3answers
894 views

Why did the magi seek a king?

In Matthew 2:1-3 (NET), the author states: After Jesus was born in Bethlehem in Judea, during the time of King Herod, Magi from the east came to Jerusalem 2 and asked, “Where is the one who has been ...
5
votes
5answers
3k views

What does "the life was the light of men" mean in John 1:4?

What does ἡ ζωὴ ἦν τὸ φῶς τῶν ἀνθρώπων mean in John 1:4? John 1:4 (KJV); In him was life; and the life was the light of men. The best I can come up with is the knowledge of Jesus' exemplary life ...
7
votes
3answers
348 views

Why is Psalm 22:16 not quoted in the New Testament?

For dogs have compassed me: the assembly of the wicked have inclosed me: they pierced my hands and my feet. [Psalm 22:16 KJV] One of the biggest objections to this verse not being used to refer to ...
3
votes
4answers
1k views

Jesus and the cross [closed]

I read Dr. Samuelsson’s writings that "Jesus did not die on cross". And here is what Dr. Craig says about that: Similarly, Dr. Samuelsson’s contention is that the Greek terminology used in the New ...
3
votes
2answers
172 views

Which Mary is which?

Inspired by this question: I thought a question directly focused on Mary-disambiguation would be helpful. There are lots of Mary's in the New Testament. Here's a sampling: In the end of the sabbath, ...
3
votes
2answers
143 views

How should πῶς οὗτος γράμματα οἶδεν μὴ μεμαθηκώς; (NA27) be translated in John 7:15?

How should πῶς οὗτος γράμματα οἶδεν μὴ μεμαθηκώς; (NA27) be translated in John 7:15? While a similar question was asked at Does John 7:15 mean Jesus was untaught?, the answers to that question did ...
1
vote
1answer
4k views

What position in society did the teachers of the law hold?

Matthew 23:27-28 (NIV): 27"Woe to you, teachers of the law and Pharisees, you hypocrites! You are like whitewashed tombs, which look beautiful on the outside but on the inside are full of the ...
20
votes
7answers
20k views

Omission of 'fasting' in Mark 9:29

I would like to know why some versions feel it apt to omit the word "fasting" from Mark 9:29. Is this because it was not concurrent with the correct translation/ meaning of this verse? For example. ...
5
votes
5answers
893 views

How possible is it that the Gospel of Luke and Acts were written for Paul’s defense?

The abrupt stop of the historic information in the book of Acts leads to the conclusion that the history stops because that was when Luke wrote Acts and his Gospel. Note where the history stops: ...
17
votes
5answers
11k views

Does the New Testament quote extrabiblical writers?

I am aware that the New Testament often quotes from the Hebrew Bible. However, I'm interested to learn whether or not it ever quotes - or alludes to - non-Hebrew / extrabiblical literature?
7
votes
1answer
5k views

What is the difference between "righteous" and "just" in the NT? [closed]

I've basically always used these words synonymously. Can someone elaborate on whether there is a difference?
5
votes
1answer
119 views

When John refers to what is 'not written', in his gospel account, does he mean, in part at least, the parables of Jesus?

And many other signs truly did Jesus in the presence of his disciples, which are not written in this book:But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and ...
3
votes
1answer
500 views

Is translating οὕτως in John 3:16 as "so much" valid?

Is translating οὕτως (the adverbial form of the word meaning "this") in John 3:16 as "so much" valid, or is this based on a misreading of the KJV? In the KJV, it is translated "so," ""For God so ...
11
votes
2answers
303 views

Are "Christ" and "Son of God" two things or one in John 20:31?

John 20:30-31 says the following: Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written so that you may ...
8
votes
4answers
382 views

Is John 1:2 redundant?

Question If we look at the text of John 1:1-2, the second verse might seem a bit redundant. 1 Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. 2 οὗτος ἦν ἐν ἀρχῇ πρὸς τὸν θεόν. ...
7
votes
6answers
3k views

What is the "His glorious inheritance" mentioned in Ephesians 1:18?

What is the "His glorious inheritance" mentioned in Ephesians 1:18 having the eyes of your hearts enlightened, that you may know what is the hope to which he has called you, what are the riches ...
6
votes
1answer
428 views

What is the "high estate" that the lowly brother has in James 1:9?

A question was raised in one of my answers asking this question. I thought it deserved its own treatment. So, here it is for your consideration: In James, we read: James 1:9 (ASV) But let the ...
5
votes
1answer
45 views

Did many of the disciples change to Greek names like Paul in Acts 13:9 when they ministered to Gentiles?

Did many of the disciples change to Greek names like Paul in Acts 13:9 when they ministered to Gentiles? The number of Greek names among the disciples seems strange. They don't seem to have been ...
5
votes
2answers
97 views

What is the best translation of the participles in the Great Commission, Matt. 28:19-20?

All the verbs in the Great Commission are participles except for μαθητεύσατε ("make disciples). For example, πορευθέντες (going) is often translated as an imperative although it is a participle. ...
4
votes
2answers
406 views

Hebrews 9:28, what is the accurate translation of this phrase?

Hebrews 9:28, DRB: So also Christ was offered once to exhaust the sins of many; the second time he shall appear without sin to them that expect him unto salvation. The phrase he shall appear ...
4
votes
1answer
193 views

If a person cannot work, is he condemned?

If a person has an illness, lives in fear or pain and cannot work, or doesn't have the strength to work, does 2 Thessalonians 3:6-12 condemn that individual?
3
votes
3answers
120 views

When Jesus told Martha if you believe, wasn’t he saying her spiritual insight depended on her belief, not Lazarus’s return to life?

When Jesus told Martha if you believe, wasn’t he saying her spiritual insight depended on her belief, not Lazarus’s return to life? Jesus said to her, “Did I not tell you that if you believed you ...
3
votes
2answers
78 views

In John 3:16 why the shift to aorist and perfect tense verbs?

In John 3:16 starting with ἠγάπησεν (aorist), the verbs shift to tenses signifying past actions. Does this mean Jesus' discourse with Nicodemus stopped with 3:15, and 3:16 starts John's narrative? ...
3
votes
2answers
2k views

Were the Hellenistic Jews and Hebraic Jews able to speak each other's language in Acts 6:1?

In Acts 6:1 what were the distinguishing differences between the Hellenistic Jews and Hebraic Jews? The related questions to this passage are: 1) How unfamiliar were the Hellenistic Jews to ...
3
votes
1answer
114 views

In John 1:15, why is μαρτυρεῖ present tense while ἦν in οὗτος ἦν ὃν εἶπον is imperfect?

In John 1:15, why is μαρτυρεῖ present tense while ἦν in οὗτος ἦν ὃν εἶπον is imperfect? The tenses seem backwards. The present tense on past events is common in the Gospel of John, "Historical (...
3
votes
4answers
12k views

I will raise you up at the last day

In many verses in John 6, Jesus says "I will raise them up at the last day". Does that mean to literally "revived" the ones who ate his body and drank his blood? Or what does it mean? Thanks!
2
votes
4answers
201 views

In John 1:14 what does ἐσκήνωσεν mean?

Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν,* καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας. (John 1:14, NA28) Usually commentators point out that ...
2
votes
5answers
4k views

Two words for love in John 21:15–17

I haven't found a way to search to see if questions on specific Biblical passages have already been asked. I'm trying to find out if anyone has dealt with Jesus' possible Hebrew/Aramaic words in the ...
2
votes
2answers
131 views

Who is the "we" (ἐσμέν) who are "of all people most to be pitied" in 1 Corinthians 15:19?

Who is the "we" in ἐσμέν in 1 Corinthians 15:19? ESV 1 Cor 15:19 If in Christ we have hope in this life only, we are of all people most to be pitied. In particular, who are the ones pitied ...
2
votes
1answer
64 views

In John 5:42 was Jesus' statement particularly offensive because it claimed they were not truthful when reciting the Shema?

In John 5:42 Jesus stated: ἀλλʼ ἔγνωκα ὑμᾶς ὅτι ⸉τὴν ἀγάπην τοῦ θεοῦ οὐκ ἔχετε⸊ ἐν ἑαυτοῖς (John 5:42, NA28) But I know that you do not have the love of God within you. (John 5:42, ESV) Why they ...
2
votes
1answer
41 views

In John 16:28 shouldn't πάλιν go with πορεύομαι πρὸς τὸν πατέρα meaning "I'm returning to the Father."

Note the more frequent use of πάλιν in the Septuagint (LXX) is to with translating the Hebrew verb meaning return. That is also a common meaning in the New Testament when used with a word meaning ...
1
vote
5answers
4k views

How does the right hand and forehead for the mark of the beast correlate to the hand and forehead for the Shema?

How does the right hand and forehead for the mark of the beast correlate to the hand and forehead for the Shema? Also it causes all, both small and great, both rich and poor, both free and slave, to ...
0
votes
2answers
165 views

Is there a linguistic basses for how to translate John 8:43, or are translations basing their translation on context alone?

Is there a linguistic basis for how to translate John 8:43, or are translations basing their translation on context alone? The following is not meant to be exhaustive, but a sample of the variation in ...