Questions tagged [john]

The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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In John 1:3, to what does πᾶς refer?

In John 3:20 pas are people. In John 14:26 panta are words and memories. In John 1:3 is πᾶς referring to the tangible objects made in Genesis 1 or also to abstractions and the things men seem to do ...
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Does “all things” always mean the same in these seven verses?

John 1:3 All thingsπάντα were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. John 3:35 The Father loveth the Son, and hath given all thingsπάντα into his hand. Romans 11:36 For ...
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How should John 3:13 be understood in view of the OT statements about Enoch and Elijah?

How should John 3:13 be understood in view of the OT statements about Enoch and Elijah? John 3:13 states: No one has ascended into heaven except the one who descended from heaven – the Son of ...
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In Ephesians 5:2 and 5:25 what does Paul mean by ἑαυτὸν παρέδωκεν ὑπὲρ αὐτῆς?

Ephesians 5:2 and 5:25 are normally taken to refer to Christ dying for the Assembly ("Church"): Westcott and Hort / [NA27 variants] Ephesians 5:2 καὶ περιπατεῖτε ἐν ἀγάπῃ, καθὼς καὶ ὁ χριστὸς ...
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In John 4:21-23 What does “But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth” means?

John 4:21 Jesus saith unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father. 4:22 Ye worship ye know not what: we know what ...
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In John 4:51 why a son (παῖς) and not a son (υἱός)?

υἱός is most common way to call a child a son. In John, this word is used 57 times. However, there is one instance where παῖς is used: As he was going down, his servants met him and told him that ...
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In John 1:36 what is the background of the term “Lamb of God”?

John 1:36 King James Version (KJV) 36 And looking upon Jesus as he walked, he saith, Behold the Lamb of God! No one seems bewildered by this designation. Was it an idiom, a recognized concept in ...
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1answer
134 views

John 1:24-34 John's baptism is illegal?

John 1:24-34 New International Version (NIV) 24 Now the Pharisees who had been sent 25 questioned him, “Why then do you baptize if you are not the Messiah, nor Elijah, nor the Prophet?” Why isn't he ...
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In John 4:18 is Jesus accusing the woman at the well of fornication or of adultery?

John 4:18 reports Jesus saying οὐκ ἔστιν σου ἀνήρ. Does the οὐκ govern σου or ἀνήρ? If the former, does it mean he’s a man but he’s not yours; and if the latter, does it imply he’s not a man, since ...
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In John 11:26 what is the meaning of “die”?

John 11:26 (version-A) and whoever lives by believing in me will never die. Do you believe this? The translation of this verse in my native language, in English will be like this : John 11:26 (...
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To whom were the Jews referring in John 6:31?

John 6:31 New King James Version (NKJV) 31 Our fathers ate the manna in the desert; as it is written, ‘He gave them bread from heaven to eat.’”[a] In the following text Christ accuses the Jews as ...
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Did the same “John” write the fourth gospel and Revelation?

By John, I mean the author of the Gospel of John (whom I believe to be the Apostle John, the beloved disciple: cf. John 21:22). Anecdotally speaking, in my lay opinion, the same (I would say artfully)...
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Literal or symbolic interpretation?

Jesus washing the feet of the disciples (John 13:1–17) occurred in the upper room, just prior to the Last Supper. "If I then, the Lord and the Teacher, washed your feet, you also ought to wash one ...
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How can we trust the Gospels if nobody was there to witness? [closed]

I am reading the Gospels and sometimes I wonder how can some stories have been recorded and then written down. The case is when Jesus is basically by himself and nobody there to witness or when he is ...
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Does John 20:22 indicate that disciples receive Holy Spirit then? [duplicate]

John 20:22 seems to indicate the disciples received the Holy Spirit at that time. I thought the Holy Spirit came at Pentecost. Can you help me understand this?
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In John 15:19 what does the author intend by κόσμος and the apostles no longer being of it?

KJV John 15:19  If ye were of the world, the world would love his own: but because ye are not of the world, but I have chosen you out of the world, therefore the world hateth you.  Westcott ...
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John 10:33 — Nominative vs. Accusative Nuance (θεος / θεον)

John 10:33 in the Greek reads (NA28): ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι· περὶ καλοῦ ἔργου οὐ λιθάζομέν σε ἀλλὰ περὶ βλασφημίας, καὶ ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς σεαυτὸν θεόν. There is nothing special or ...
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What does the verb tense etc. for τηρήσετε in John 14:15 indicate?

In John 14:15, does the Greek verb tense (etc.) make the keeping of Jesus' commands a command, a predictive promise (you will) or is it even possible that Jesus is saying that in you love me you are ...
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505 views

Is the term “sons of God” in John 1:12 the same categorization as “sons of God” in the OT (IE: Job 1:6)?

The OT seems to have a consistent usage of the phrase "sons of God" as "angels" and the NT seems to ignore it completely. Or does it? Is there actually continuity? KJV John 1:12  But as many as ...
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What is the importance of the folded napkin in the empty tomb? [duplicate]

What is the importance of the folded napkin n the empty tomb? And the napkin, that was about his head, not lying with the linen clothes, but wrapped together in a place by itself. John 20:7. TR.
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Why did Jesus call His mother “Woman”?

In John 19:26 it says, When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son! This isn't the 1st time Jesus uses the ...
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Why doesn't the ASV translate the accusative με in John 14:14?

In the Greek, John 14:14 reads: ἐάν τι αἰτήσητέ με ἐν τῷ ὀνόματί μου ἐγὼ ποιήσω. (SBL) Most English translations render the accusative με as "me" or "of me"' for example, the ...
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In John 10:18 what command did Jesus receive from his father?

New International Version John 10: 17The reason my Father loves me is that I lay down my life—only to take it up again. 18 No one takes it from me, but I lay it down of my own accord. I have authority ...
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In John 5:26 what is meant by “life in himself”?

In the New Living Translation and others John 5:26 is translated in a way that seems antithetical to the Augustinian concept of "the eternal generation of the Son". That is, if the NLT reading is ...
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John 5:18 — John's own Christology or Misunderstanding of the Jews?

(Biases on the table: I am a Christian and believe that Jesus is God in the flesh, namely, the eternal Λογος of God Rev 19:13 (who is distinct from the Father προς τον θεον, but of the same nature ...
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What did Jesus mean in John 4:22, ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε?

What did Jesus mean in John 4:22, ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε (You worship what you do not know; ESV)? Why is the neuter relative pronoun used in both statements: ὑμεῖς προσκυνεῖτε ὃ οὐκ οἴδατε· ...
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What was the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30? [closed]

I want to know the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30: "I and the Father are one." "Egō kai ho Patēr hen esmen." Specifically, I want to know whether the probable ...
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What does ανωθεν mean in John 19:23?

In John 19:23, John writes εκ των ανωθεν (translated 'from the top' by KJV) in relation to Jesus' garment for which soldiers gambled. των is genitive, since that is what the preposition εκ requires. ...
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What did the disciple whom Jesus loved (ἐφίλει) believe?

Several times in the Gospel, John makes a statement or uses a word which can be understood in more than one way. Often times this appears to be purposeful as both meanings are correct. For example ...
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In John 17:5 does the “world” (κόσμος) refer to physical matter or any creation?

(Douay-Rheims Bible) And now glorify thou me, O Father, with thyself, with the glory which I had, before the world was, with thee. John 17:5 Does the word "world" refer to the actual planet earth, ...
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According to the Bible the whole world lies under the power of the evil one. (1 John 5:19)

1 John 5:19 (NRSV) "We know that we are God’s children, and that the whole world lies under the power of the evil one." How could someone evil gain control over the world (humanity)?
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How did John the Baptist question whether he should baptize Jesus (Matt. 3:13-15), if he did not know before Jesus' baptism (John 1:31-34)?

How did John the Baptist know enough about Jesus to question whether he should baptize Jesus (Matt. 3:13-15)? 13 Then Jesus came from Galilee to the Jordan to John, to be baptized by him. 14 John ...
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John 1:31 Why did John not know his cousin?

"I myself did not know him, but the reason I came baptizing with water was that he might be revealed to Israel." (John 1:31) Mary and Elizabeth both met up before John and Jesus were born, but it ...
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How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17?

How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17? κόσμος has obviously different meanings as used in the following two passages. For God so loved the world, that he gave ...
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In John 1:15, why is μαρτυρεῖ present tense while ἦν in οὗτος ἦν ὃν εἶπον is imperfect?

In John 1:15, why is μαρτυρεῖ present tense while ἦν in οὗτος ἦν ὃν εἶπον is imperfect? The tenses seem backwards. The present tense on past events is common in the Gospel of John, "Historical (...
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What does “the life was the light of men” mean in John 1:4?

What does ἡ ζωὴ ἦν τὸ φῶς τῶν ἀνθρώπων mean in John 1:4? John 1:4 (KJV); In him was life; and the life was the light of men.
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John 1:28 Bethany/Bethabara Location?

So, i'm just wanting to know where the location of Bethany is as mentioned by John. I've seen different maps that have it in different places. Some NT maps even show two Bethanys! You should see the ...
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In what way was the word with God?

John states the word was "with" God: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (πρὸς) God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with (πρὸς) God. (John 1:1-2 ESV) As used after ...
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Where is Cana of Galilee in John 2:1?

On the third day there was a wedding at Cana in Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there.  Jesus also was invited to the wedding with his disciples. The Holy Bible: English Standard Version. (2016)....
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λέγει πρὸς αὐτόν vs. λέγει αὐτῷ—what is the difference?

What exactly is the difference between saying something 'to' someone ("λέγει πρὸς αὐτόν"), and simply saying something to someone ("λέγει αὐτῷ"). I read in John 2:3-4 that: Mary "λέγει πρὸς αὐτόν" (...
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Two words for love in John 21:15–17

I haven't found a way to search to see if questions on specific Biblical passages have already been asked. I'm trying to find out if anyone has dealt with Jesus' possible Hebrew/Aramaic words in the ...
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Was Jesus Forgiving the Adulteress Originally in the Gospel of John? [duplicate]

I've heard this story was not originally part of the Gospel, but was added in. The best reason I can imagine is it shares many sentiments with Matthew 18's parable of the king who forgives the ...
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Is Jesus denying his deity in John 10?

31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. 32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? 33 The Jews answered him, ...
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Does John 17:22 imply the Father and Son do not share an special/eternal/divine relationship as the trinity claims? [closed]

And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: - John 17:22 KJV I'm a bit confused about this verse debating my Muslim friend, as he claims this ...
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What does “branches are gathered up and thrown into the fire” mean in John 15:6?

What does "branches are gathered up and thrown into the fire" mean? John 15:6 If anyone does not remain in me, he is thrown out like a branch, and dries up; and such branches are gathered up and ...
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What does “My hour” mean in John 2:4?

John 2:4 "Woman, why do you involve me?" Jesus replied. "My hour has not yet come." Case A I understand "My hour" as "My time to perform a first sign". But I think this contradicts the next verse :...
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Were the Jews allowed to crucify Jesus themselves?

In John 19:6 Pontius Pilate says "Take ye him, and crucify him: for I find no fault in him." Does this imply that the Jews were allowed to crucify Him? If so, why didn't they do that?
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When is the “ruler of this world” driven out? Jn 12:31

NIV John 12:31 Now is the time for judgment on this world; now the prince [ruler] of this world will be driven out. In that verse he was speaking about his upcoming crucifixion. But in Ephesians, ...
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“Whosoever” in John 3:16

It is correct to suggest that "whosoever" can be translated "the believing ones" or "the ones believing" and still maintain the the seeming Greek construction of πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων as tending towards a ...
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A question about the word λεντιον, lention, (linteum ?) in John 13: 4,5

In John 13:4,5 the word λεντιον lention is used - translated 'towel' usually. Young, Strong, Thayer and Liddel & Scott all refer to linteum, a Latin word. For Strong and Thayer, see Biblehub. I ...

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