Questions tagged [john]

The fourth Gospel in the Christian New Testament that is attributed to John the son of Zebedee.

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Does Jesus command the Father to sanctify us in the truth?

John 17:17 NASB95 “Sanctify them in the truth; Your word is truth.” The word “sanctify” here in the Greek is in the aorist, active, imperative. The Blue Letter Bible defines the imperative mood as “a ...
Bogdan Chmil's user avatar
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Outside of John 8:58, how is the term 'genesthai' used by the author John when it comes to timing of what the verb is describing?

There is significant debate over the proper meaning of John 8:58. A typical translation is "Truly, truly, I tell you," Jesus declared, "before Abraham was born, I am!" Indeed, ...
Only True God's user avatar
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Why did Jesus say no one knows the Son except the Father?

In Matthew 11:27 (NIV), Jesus says No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him. However, in John 10:14 (NIV) ...
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Did Thomas touch Jesus hand(s), or seeing was enough for him to believe?

In John 20:24‭-‬25 one reads But Thomas, one of the twelve, called Didymus, was not with them when Jesus came. The other disciples therefore said unto him, We have seen the Lord. But he said unto ...
Gonçalo Peres's user avatar
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Had the Son of Man already ascended in John 3:13?

John 3:13, 14 13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven—the Son of Man. 14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the wilderness, so the Son of Man must be lifted up (...
K. J. Eastvold's user avatar
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Who is "the man" in John 2:25, and why did the ancient manuscripts render "anthropos" as a Nomina Sacra?

My wife and I were studying John 2 and came across this verse, which seems clear-cut in English: and because He did not need anyone to testify concerning man, for He Himself knew what was in man. So ...
Niwa's user avatar
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How to understand the rendering of God in John 1 without the preceding article ho?

This article claims that God has been translated to 'a god' in the New World Translation as a result of the article 'ho' not proceeding the word God. Is this a valid argument or are there other areas ...
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What is the Hebrew background of "the word" used in John 1? [duplicate]

John 1 Life application study Bible In Greek philosophy, the Word was the principle of reason that governed the world; in Hebrew thought, the Word was another expression for God. The Greek use of &...
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John 14:26b ...IN MY NAME

I only came here to find something out about the phrase; "...will send in My name" specifically the 'in my name' part of John 14:26. What is the point AND the meaning of this phrase, "...
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Why did the Samaritan woman leave her waterpot?

“The woman then left her waterpot, went her way into the city, and said to the men,” ‭‭(John‬ ‭4:28‬ ‭NKJV‬‬) Why in the story of the Samaritan woman does the Holy Spirit specify she left her ...
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Should "among" in John 1:14 really be translated "within"?

I’ve heard that in John 1:14 the word “among” was wrongly translated from its Greek origin and that it truly meant “within”. Can you shed some light on that please? And the Word was made flesh, and ...
John Kunz's user avatar
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Does John 17:23 teach that the Father loves all believers as much as he loves Jesus?

The last part of John 17:23 says Then the world will know that you sent me and have loved them even as you have loved me. Does that mean the Father loves believers in the same way and to the same ...
Andrew Crisp's user avatar
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What was the role of Nathaniel in the Ministry of Jesus?

We see Jesus selecting some of his disciples in Jn 1: 43-51 (NRSVCE): The next day Jesus decided to go to Galilee. He found Philip and said to him, “Follow me.... Philip found Nathaniel and said to ...
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Are the living waters in John 7:38-39 the same as in Revelation 7:17?

Is is said during the last day of the feast of Tabernacles Christ called upon all who believe to come and drink the living waters which seem to point to the giving of the Holy Spirit. John 7:38 If ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
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Who are the intended recipients of the fourth Gospel?

Who are the intended recipients of the fourth gospel (John)? For example, is it for: The Jewish community who had questions about the identity of Jesus? The Gentiles who need to know the relationship ...
Joy John's user avatar
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Romans 8:16 -" τῷ πνεύματι ἡμῶν" - Is it the Holy Spirit bears witness "with" or "to" our spirit?

Most English versions translate "with our spirit," while the Bishop's Bible 1558, Mace NT, Douay, Catholic Public Domain Versions, and Lamsa and Aramaic Bible in Plain English translate &...
Sam's user avatar
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What does τίθησιν mean in John 10:11?

We know the basic lexical meaning of τίθημι, and we know ultimately Jesus referred to his sacrificial death on the cross. But, in Jesus' figurative statements like this in John, they have an everyday ...
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John 12:8 - The poor you will always have with you

In John Chapter 12 verses 1-8 Jesus says the famous quote "... The poor you will always have with you, but you will not always have Me", or in the original greek: τοὺς (the) πτωχοὺς (poor) ...
Display name's user avatar
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John 1:1, should the anarthrous pre-verbal predicate nominative be rendered indefinitely? [duplicate]

Some Unitarians point to the indefinite rendering of the anarthrous pre-verbal PN in verses like John 8:44, John 9:8, John 9:17, John 10:13, John 18:37, John 4:19, John 8:48, John 10:1, John 10:33. Do ...
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Why did John use the name Nicodemus, a Greek name, instead of his Hebrew name in John 3:1?

νικάω ... 1. intr. be victor, prevail, conquer... 2. trans. conquer, overcome, vanquish... -- Arndt, W., Gingrich, F. W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (1979). In A Greek-English lexicon of the New ...
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Are individual church members the rooms in John 14:2?

In John 14:23, Jesus says: Anyone who loves me will obey my teaching. My Father will love them, and we will come to them and make our home with them.` The Greek word for home (μονὴν) is the same ...
Andrew Crisp's user avatar
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Is John 6:4 authentic?

A friend of mine at church says John's gospel chapter 6 verse 4 is inauthentic and should not be there. And the passover, a feast of the Jews, was nigh. (John 6:4 KJV) What is the manuscript ...
Victor Smithers's user avatar
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The 8th miracle in the Gospel of John

This question is only for those who agree that chapter 21 of John is authentic. The seven signs of John omit the last miracle (sign) in chapter 21: Seven of Jesus' disciples caught no fish all night ...
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Did Jesus make a parallel to the Shema (Deut. 6:4-6) in John 14:6-11?

Did Jesus make a parallel to the Shema (Deut. 6:4-6) in John 14:6-11? There is considerable evidence that John makes parallels to the Pentateuch in his gospel. John 1:1 and Genesis 1:1 in the ...
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How does the father purge the fruitful branch in John 15:2?

John 15:2 KJV Every branch in me that beareth not fruit he taketh away: and every branch that beareth fruit, he purgeth it, that it may bring forth more fruit. The above metaphor seemingly refers to ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
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Why did Jesus tell the witnesses to his healing of the deaf and mute man not to tell anyone of the miracle if he knew they would?

I am at a loss to be able to reconcile the apostle John's description of Jesus in John 2:24-25 with Mark's account of Jesus's healing of the deaf and mute man in 7:31-37, particularly v. 36. John 2: ...
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How is the word 'world' (kosmos) used in John's Gospel outside of the prologue?

There are some who think 'world' (kosmos) used at John 1:10b "He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him." means something roughly ...
Only True God's user avatar
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10 answers
958 views

To which beginning is the word 'beginning' (arche) referring in the Gospel of John, outside of the prologue?

The standard reading of John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." is that the beginning - ἀρχῇ (archē) - refers to the old beginning, i.e., ...
Only True God's user avatar
5 votes
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Should John 9:3 end in a comma or a period?

Let's look at John 9:2-4 to put v. 3 in context (NKJV): 2 And His disciples asked Him, saying, "Rabbi, who sinned, this man or his parents, that he was born blind?" 3 Jesus answered, "...
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Targum - Aramaic Translation of Tanakh... Did Jesus use Hebrew Bible or Targum? [closed]

John records the following statement by Jesus: Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. (John 5:39) The scriptures that Jesus refers ...
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Hermeneutic implications of "In the beginning" of John's prologue

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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Textual Variants of John 19:26-27 (Entrustment of Mary)

Are there any known historical variants, interpolations, or alternate interpretations regarding the Entrustment of Mary in John 19:26-27? Specifically the four bold words in verse 26 below? John 19 [...
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John 6:37 “I will never cast out” in what sense?

“Everyone whom the Father gives me will come to me, and the one who comes to me I will never send away.” ‭‭John‬ ‭6:37‬ ‭NET‬‬ “All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to ...
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Can seeing someone rise from the dead produce genuine belief (John 11:38-45) or not (Luke 16:30-31)?

John 11:38-45 (ESV) 38 Then Jesus, deeply moved again, came to the tomb. It was a cave, and a stone lay against it. 39 Jesus said, “Take away the stone.” Martha, the sister of the dead man, said to ...
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What is Jesus teaching in the context of John 6: "he who believes has eternal life"(v47) & "if anyone eats of this bread, he will live forever"(v51)?

Text: John 6:47 -51 (ESV) "47 Truly, truly, I tell you, he who believes has eternal life. 48 I am the bread of life. 49 Your fathers ate the manna in the wilderness, yet they died. 50 This is the ...
Sam's user avatar
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3 votes
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Is it fair to say that the "enfleshment" of John 1:14 was caused by the Word?

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. - John 1:14 KJV The word in question is γίνομαι (...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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In defending His actions on the Sabbath, does Jesus use φιλέω rather than ἀγαπάω to imply equality with His Father?

In defending His actions of healing the invalid and instructing him to pick up his bed and leave the pool, Jesus compares His actions to His Father's and makes this statement: For the Father loves (...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
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1 answer
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Who's the antecedent of His in "through..His creative inspiration?"

1In the beginning the Living Expression was already there. And the Living Expression was with God, yet fully God. 2They were together—face-to-face, in the very beginning. 3And through his creative ...
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2 votes
4 answers
271 views

If John the Baptist said "He was temporally before me" at John 1:15, what would 1st century Jewish listeners have understood by this?

There is significant debate over how John 1:15 should be interpreted (see the question Does John the Baptist's witness imply the pre-incarnate existence of Jesus?). "John testified concerning ...
Only True God's user avatar
9 votes
6 answers
1k views

Why is 'egeneto' at John 1:14 translated differently than 'egeneto' at John 1:6?

John 1:6 is "There was a man who was sent from God. His name was John." (KJB) The first 'was' is 'egeneto'. It is aorist, indicative, middle. ('Was' or 'came' are the most common ...
Only True God's user avatar
4 votes
6 answers
952 views

How do we reconcile Jesus appearance in Luke & John passage relating to Thomas?

How do we reconcile Jesus' appearance in the Luke & John passages relating to Thomas: Matthew 27 - Judas killed himself before Jesus' resurrection Luke 24 - Jesus met the rest of the disciples ...
another theory's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
457 views

John 6:40 see/behold/looks “On the Son” what does it mean?

Q: Is John 6:40 referring to a “seeing in faith”? Or some type of perception given to us since Jesus is invisible to us? “For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and ...
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How should John 10:17-18 be understood? lambanō λαμβάνω: "Take or Receive" life back again?

How should John 10:17-18 be understood? For this reason the Father loves me, because I lay down my life so that I may take it back. 18 No one has taken it away from me, but I lay it down on my own. I ...
Steve's user avatar
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2 votes
2 answers
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Does Matt. 16:16 conflict with the passage in John 1:34?

I notice a couple of things: In Matthew, Peter says Jesus is the Son of God; but in John 1, Andrew was the first to reveal this early in their encounter with Jesus. That is, while in Matthew, Peter ...
RAMONA DAVIS's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
396 views

What is the connection between "I am the resurrection and life, whoever believes in me will live" and Martha's "You are the Christ, the Son of God"?

After Lazarus has died, there is this exchange in John 11 between Jesus and Martha (John 11:21-27). 21 Martha said to Jesus, “Lord, if You had been here, my brother would not have died. 22 But even ...
Only True God's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
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John 1:4 to 1:9 - is it the Light or the light?

Looking at various translations of John 1:4-9, there are a range of uses of capitalization for 'light'. The ESV keeps everything as 'light'. The Berean Study Bible uses 'light' at 1:4 but then ...
Only True God's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
154 views

What are the arguments of scholars who suppose that the Gospel according to John does not go back to John the disciple of Jesus?

Many authors, even some who write the preface to acknowledged Bible editions, suppose that the Gospel according to John has not been written by John, the former disciple of Jesus. Although such ...
SDG's user avatar
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4 votes
1 answer
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How do we reconcile John 15:15 with Romans 6:22?

Compare: “No longer do I call you slaves, for the slave does not know what his master is doing; but I have called you friends, for all things that I have heard from My Father I have made known to you....
Cork88's user avatar
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5 votes
3 answers
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If Jesus broke the Sabbath at John 5:18, why does He say "Therefore it is lawful to do good on the Sabbath" at Matthew 12:12?

Some interpret John 5:18 "Because of this, the Jews tried all the harder to kill Him. Not only was He breaking the Sabbath, but He was even calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with ...
Only True God's user avatar
4 votes
1 answer
83 views

Revelation 10:11. Prophecy ABOUT many nations or TO many nations

Revelation 10:11 gets translated two different ways. The predominant translation is that John is commanded to prophecy about other nations, but a few translations have John commanded to prophecy to ...
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