Questions tagged [hebrew]
The language in which the Jewish Scriptures (Tanakh) -- or the "Old Testament" in Christian Bibles -- were written.
15
questions with no upvoted or accepted answers
4
votes
3
answers
315
views
Is there a first person verb with a plural subject in Hebrew?
I am aware of singular verbs with plural subjects in the third person, masculine, singular. Such as Exodus 4:29, but I am wondering if there is a 1cs that has a plural subject?
Feel free to add or ...
2
votes
2
answers
417
views
How long was the weeping of Tammuz?
In the book of Ezekiel, it describes women weeping for the god, Tammuz, in the Temple. I've heard that supposedly the weeping lasted for only a couple of days, while others say it lasted for the month ...
2
votes
1
answer
247
views
What exactly does "land of my birth" mean in מֽוֹלַדְתִּי֒?
In Genesis 24:7, Abraham said:
ז יְהוָה אֱלֹהֵי הַשָּׁמַיִם, אֲשֶׁר לְקָחַנִי מִבֵּית אָבִי וּמֵאֶרֶץ מוֹלַדְתִּי, וַאֲשֶׁר דִּבֶּר-לִי וַאֲשֶׁר נִשְׁבַּע-
לִי לֵאמֹר, לְזַרְעֲךָ אֶתֵּן אֶת-הָאָרֶץ ...
2
votes
0
answers
168
views
Did God speak with Moses in a more "broken, simplified, or intimate" Hebrew dialect?
No specific Bible verse to quote, but it's something I've heard tossed around before. Can anyone confirm the validity of this claim? It went something along the lines of,
"When Moses is writing ...
2
votes
8
answers
4k
views
According to Genesis 10:5, at the Tower of Babel, did God divide the new languages by family group?
5 By these have the isles of the nations been parted in their lands,
each by his tongue, by their families, in their nations. (YLT)
This verse (also verse 20 and 31) seems to suggest that God ...
1
vote
1
answer
180
views
Plural ending -im with proper names
Muslim apologists claim that the word mahmadim from Song of Solomon 5:16 is name of Muhammad, although it is just a Hebrew word meaning precious and pleasant and it comes in other verses too.
I have ...
1
vote
1
answer
34
views
Are the Prayer Requests of 1 Kings 8:31-52 grammatically subordinate to the "requests" of 1 Kings 1:25-26
I'm a beginning exegete and I'm trying to determine, are the prayer requests of 1 Kings 8:31-52 grammatically subordinate to the "requests" of 1 Kings 1:25-26?
Verses 25-26 where Solomon ...
1
vote
0
answers
66
views
What is the significance of the selective use of εἰμι in expressions of self identification in LXX-Genesis?
In his commentary of Exodus, Dennis Prager makes this statement:
Hebrew does not have a word for the present tense of the verb "to be." In other words, there is no Hebrew word for "am&...
0
votes
1
answer
95
views
Grammar question
Because of the fragrance of your good ointments, Your name is ointment
poured forth; Therefore the virgins love you (Song of Solomon 1:3)
The word for "ointment poured forth" is שֶׁ֖מֶן (...
0
votes
0
answers
16
views
How do we know what "animal" words are referring to in Hebrew?
Other than context, is there any way to determine what animals words like מִקְנֶה and בְּהֵמָה are referring to? (For example, are the meanings of these words given in dictionaries like BDB ...
0
votes
0
answers
50
views
transcriptions of the OT and NT texts
Can you advise where to find transcriptions (i.e. pronunciation, e.g. dawar; I don't mean transliteration - dābār) of the hebrew (OT) and greek (NT) texts?
0
votes
0
answers
46
views
Is the definite article in Hebrew used to convert an adjective or adverb into a noun, or used without a noun?
This question requires a degree of Hebrew scholarship, although if someone has the means (software) to compile a list of Old Testament examples where articles precede adjectives or adverbs without a ...
0
votes
0
answers
116
views
Does anything in 2 Samuel 13:20-22 Hebrew text hint that King David reaction as Only being angry be because of feelings of hypocrisy?
It might be circuitous/tortuous reasoning but here goes:
David has adulterous sinful sexual relations with Bathsheba
Prophet Nathan confronts David about his sin
David feels remorseful, and ...
-1
votes
2
answers
105
views
What's the point of the law saying "you shall not murder" if later on it says "whoever strikes a man ... shall be put to death"?
There are two Old Testament commands that seem redundant to me:
Exodus 20:13 ESV - You shall not murder.
Exodus 21:12 ESV - Whoever strikes a man so that he dies shall be put to death.
I know ...
-1
votes
1
answer
52
views
Why so many repetitions in the Torah in relation to Moses and G'd?
Another intriguing question caught my attention today and it is something that is repeated a lot in the Torah - who is G'd? An example of this can be found in Exodus 6:10:
וַיְדַבֵּ֥ר יְהֹוָ֖ה אֶל־...