Questions tagged [greek]

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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In John 1:1c, should the Greek word θεὸς be translated into English as “a god” or “God”?

The New World Translation, the official Bible version of the Watchtower/Jehovah’s Witnesses, translates John 1:1 into English as follows: 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, ...
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Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation? [closed]

Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts? ...
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1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does "The Perfect" Refer to?

1. Question: In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written - not 500 years later? 1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when "...
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13answers
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How should we understand "he cannot sin" in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the verse ...
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1 Corinthians 13:9-10 - What Does "ἐκ μέρους" Mean?

In 1 Corinthians 13:9-10 - What does "ἐκ μέρους" mean here? Is Paul talking about "knowing only partially" (i.e. incomplete knowledge), or "knowing as only part of the body" (i.e. of Christ), as in ...
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What Is The Aorist Tense Of A Verb? [closed]

I've read that one of the difficulties of translating New Testament Greek is the presence of the aorist tense of verbs in Greek. I think I understand what is meant by "aorist tense" in that it seems ...
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1 Corinthians 13:10 - Should "The Perfect" Be Interpreted in an Eschatological Sense?

1. Question - Regarding Greek Grammar, the Subjunctive "ὅταν": In 1 Corinthians 13:10 - Should "The Coming of the Perfect" be interpreted in an "Eschatological Sense" - in view of the World? Perhaps ...
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1 Corinthians 13:10 - What Will Cease when "The Perfect" Comes?

1. Question - Greek Grammar and Syntax Setting aside doctrinal arguments - are there any grammatical indications that may clarify what will "will cease", (or be "nullified") - when "the perfect comes"...
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What does the word "prototokos" mean in Colossians 1:15?

What does the Greek word "prototokos" mean in English as used in Colossians 1:15? Col 1:15 The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn [prōtotokos] over all creation. [NIV] ...
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1 Corinthians 13:9 - How Should "Out Of" Be Translated?

1. Question - Reference Request, and Textual Basis: In 1 Corinthians 13:10 - Why is " ἐκ | out of " left out of the translation? Are there any period texts that also have similar constructions? ...
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Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

Also known by the more pedestrian title: How should Romans 9:5 be punctuated? Romans 9:5, NA28 (punctuation omitted): ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς ...
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Luke 22:16 - Did Jesus say he was not going to eat THAT Passover?

Related: - Is there any significance to using φάγω vs ἐσθίω? - In Luke 22, How Should Prepare and Eat - be Translated from the Aorist Subjunctive? - In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered ...
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In Colossians 1:27, what is the meaning of “this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory”?

In Col. 1:24-29, it is written, 24 Now I rejoice in what was suffered for you, and I fill up in my flesh what is still lacking in regard to Christ’s afflictions, for the sake of his body, which is ...
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Why does Revelation 8:1 use ὅταν instead of ὅτε?

I do not know Greek, so hopefully I am not just embarrassing myself with this question; but here goes. For the first six seals in Revelation, John introduces them using ὅτε: 1 - Καὶ εἶδον ὅτε ...
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What is the difference between the μορφῇ of God and the εἶδος of God?

who, though he was in the form [morphe] of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped (Philippians 2:6 ESV). And the Father who sent me has himself borne witness about me. His ...
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In 1 Tim 2:12, how does αὐθεντεῖν (αὐθεντεω) differ from the more commonly used ἐξουσιάζω?

SBLGNT: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. From what I can tell, this is the only use of any form of this word (often translated "to exercise authority"...
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What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions?Is it "only" or "only-begotten"?

What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions? What are the rendering of μονογενής into Ancient Versions of the *NT passages? Hebrew Arabic: Ethiopic: Syriac (Aramaic): ...
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Should John 1:18 be translated differently?

Assuming that John 1:18 actually says theos instead of huios, and monogenes means one of a kind or unique, the Greek says: θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ...
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Did Chrysostom's Text Say a "Double Sabbath" was One Day? or Two?

Related: - What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to? - Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the "3 Day/3 Night" Objections? 1. Question: Homilies on Matthew (...
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Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word "love" in "John 21:15-17"

In John 21:15-17 (ESV), we read: 15 When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?” He said to him, “Yes, Lord; you know that ...
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Angel or messenger?

Often, it is clear from context whether מלאך and αγγελος refer to a human messenger or an angelic messenger. For example, if a מלאך or αγγελος is sent by a human, then the messenger is likely human. ...
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Those who believe are "especially" saved?

1 Timothy 4:10 (NET emphasis mine) reads: In fact this is why we work hard and struggle, because we have set our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of believers. ...
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What does μή μου ἅπτου mean in John 20:17?

Much depends on how you translate the present middle imperative verb ἅπτου. Robertson's interpretation is "stop clinging" because "don't touch" would be aorist middle imperative. ...
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How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17?

How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17? κόσμος has obviously different meanings as used in the following two passages. For God so loved the world, that he gave ...
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Since BDAG says "και" suggests a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 that justifies that “our Great God” is the Father and not Jesus, is και adjunctive?

Since BDAG says "και" suggests a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 that justifies that “our Great God” is the Father and not Jesus, is και adjunctive?
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Translation of "this generation will not pass away" in Matthew 24:34?

I'm curious specifically regarding the translation of the word "generation" here in Matthew 24:34, Mark 13:30, and Luke 21:32. Matthew 24:34 (NIV) Truly I tell you, this generation will certainly ...
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In 2 Peter 1:4 what does Peter mean by "partakers of the divine nature"?

3His divine power has granted to us all things that pertain to life and godliness, through the knowledge of him who called us to his own glory and excellence, 4by which he has granted to us his ...
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What was meant by "paradise" when Jesus spoke to the thief on the cross?

As he was crucified, Jesus engaged in a conversation with one of the thieves hung along side him. At the end of that conversation is this pronouncement: Luke 23:43 (ESV) 43 And he said to him, "...
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What did Jesus mean by "be perfect" in the Sermon on the Mount?

I asked this on the Christianity Stack Exchange site, and they told me it would be better here. So I here I am asking it... Therefore you shall be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is perfect. ...
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What is the difference between πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ and πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν?

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 3:15-16 (SBLGNT) 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον. 16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ἀλλὰ ...
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What is the correct translation of ἁμαρτίαν in 2 Corinthians 5:21? What did God make Jesus?

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 5:21 has been translated in various ways: τὸν γὰρ μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν ἵνα ἡμεῖς γινώμεθα δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ If the translation of ἁμαρτίαν ...
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The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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Mark 7:19 - Does Jesus Really Declare "All Foods Clean?"

The KJV and NASB transliterations of this verse do not seem to be 100% correct. Greek Word for word in Context "since not it enters her/he into mind/soul, rather/but, into the lower belly (...
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Does "asleep" in 1 Corinthians 15 mean that the dead are unconscious prior to the resurrection?

Inspired by discussion from this question The New Testament regularly refers to the dead as "asleep". This occurs several times in 1 Corinthians 15, such as: 20 But now is Christ risen ...
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In Hebrews 1:2, to what does the Greek word «αἰῶνας» refer?

In Heb. 1:1-2, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ...
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Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?

I previously asked a question about how to understand these words in the language Jesus was originally speaking. However, the text we have is in Greek, and I realized I’m not as familiar with the ...
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Is it appropriate to translate Galatians 3:21 as "If a law had been given"?

I do not read Hebrew or Greek but my interpretation of Pauline epistles is different than traditional protestants. Gal 3:21 (ESV) Is the law then contrary to the promises of God? Certainly not! ...
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(John 3:16) Greek: Only Begotten

John 3:16, “For God so loved the world that he gave his only (μονογενῆ) Son, so that everyone who believes in him may not perish but may have eternal life." My question resides in the greek term ...
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Since the Word received life in John 1:3-4 per the UBS Greek text, can the prologue also support the Word was eternal?

The problem: The grammar of John 1:1-4, especially in our critical editions of the Greek text give substantial reason to view the Word as having received his very life in the beginning. However ...
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Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?

Matthew 13:55-56a (ESV) Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us? SBLGNT ...
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Has the meaning of "Love" changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?

The culturally accepted uses of the word "Love" seem to be a trite shadow of its biblical meaning. Common use of "Love" is now interchangeable with "Like," "Enjoy," or "Emotionally attachment" of ...
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Could μονογενής mean simply "unique"?

In this article Hebrew scholar Michael Heiser makes the claim that the term μονογενής (monogenēs) in John 3:16 means "unique" rather than "only-begotten." However, he does not provide citations, ...
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Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?

Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads: I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem, By gazelles or by hinds of the field: Do not wake or rouse Love until it please! As the NET Bible points out, ...
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Sabbath, Sabbaths or week? Matthew 28:1

Reading in Matthew 28:1 (ESV): Now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first day of the week, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary went to see the tomb. ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν ...
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Tetelestai - What did Jesus really say in John 19:30 assuming he spoke Aramaic or Hebrew?

I have been researching for a long time John 19:30, more specifically the word Tetelestai (τετελεσται) in the Greek. But recently came across the topic of the Hebrew Gospels (possible late ...
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In the Gospels, Can "Day of:" the Passover - be Interpreted Idiomatically?

Related: - The Correct Research Methodology To Substantiate If an Expression is an Idiom? - In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered a Passover Feast? - The meaning of παρασκευή ('day ...
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Luke 23:54 - How should "Sabbath Dawning" be Interpreted?

The Syriac of Luke 23:54 seems to affirm an interpretation of "Sabbath Dawning". In addition, the same word seems to be used 43 times in the Syriac New Testament to mean "Dawn". So,...
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Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a "partitive" or "inclusive" sense?

There are two distinct linguistic issues in the latter part of Matthew 28:17, which reads this way (NA28 = SBL GNT = UBS4) - καὶ ἰδόντες αὐτὸν προσεκύνησαν,a οἱ δὲ ἐδίστασαν. kai idontes auton ...
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In Ephesians 2:2, to what or whom does "the authority of the air" refer?

In Eph. 2:2, it is written, in which once ye did walk according to the age of this world, according to the ruler of the authority of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of ...
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What is the meaning of "katatomē" in Philippians 3:2?

I'm looking over John Frame's treatment of the third commandment in The Doctrine of the Christian Life (page 509), and he makes an interesting statement regarding Paul's angry words against his pro-...

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