Questions tagged [greek]

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

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73
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19answers
46k views

In John 1:1c, should the Greek word θεὸς be translated into English as “a god” or “God”?

The New World Translation, the official Bible version of the Watchtower/Jehovah’s Witnesses, translates John 1:1 into English as follows: 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, ...
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9answers
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Which 'modern' English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation?

Which 'modern' (anything inclusive of King James Version to date) English translation of the Bible is considered the 'closest' or most accurate translation from the original Hebrew & Greek texts? ...
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14answers
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1 Corinthians 13:10 - What does “The Perfect” Refer to?

1. Question: In 1 Cor 13:10, what does "The Perfect, (τὸ τέλειον)" refer to, and how would it have understood at the time it was written - not 500 years later? 1 Cor. 13:10, NASB - 10 but when "...
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5answers
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1 Corinthians 13:9-10 - What Does “ἐκ μέρους” Mean?

In 1 Corinthians 13:9-10 - What does "ἐκ μέρους" mean here? Is Paul talking about "knowing only partially" (i.e. incomplete knowledge), or "knowing as only part of the body" (i.e. of Christ), as in ...
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3answers
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What Is The Aorist Tense Of A Verb? [closed]

I've read that one of the difficulties of translating New Testament Greek is the presence of the aorist tense of verbs in Greek. I think I understand what is meant by "aorist tense" in that it seems ...
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7answers
850 views

1 Corinthians 13:10 - What Will Cease when “The Perfect” Comes?

1. Question - Greek Grammar and Syntax Setting aside doctrinal arguments - are there any grammatical indications that may clarify what will "will cease", (or be "nullified") - when "the perfect comes"...
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2answers
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1 Corinthians 13:9 - How Should “Out Of” Be Translated?

1. Question - Reference Request, and Textual Basis: In 1 Corinthians 13:10 - Why is " ἐκ | out of " left out of the translation? Are there any period texts that also have similar constructions? ...
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3answers
567 views

1 Corinthians 13:10 - Should “The Perfect” Be Interpreted in an Eschatological Sense?

1. Question - Regarding Greek Grammar, the Subjunctive "ὅταν": In 1 Corinthians 13:10 - Should "The Coming of the Perfect" be interpreted in an "Eschatological Sense" - in view of the World? Perhaps ...
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5answers
734 views

Luke 22:16 - Did Jesus say he was not going to eat THAT Passover?

Related: - Is there any significance to using φάγω vs ἐσθίω? - In Luke 22, How Should Prepare and Eat - be Translated from the Aorist Subjunctive? - In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered ...
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7answers
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In Colossians 1:27, what is the meaning of “this mystery among the Gentiles, which is Christ in you, the hope of glory”?

In Col. 1:24-29, it is written, 24 Now I rejoice in what was suffered for you, and I fill up in my flesh what is still lacking in regard to Christ’s afflictions, for the sake of his body, which is ...
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12answers
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How should we understand “he cannot sin” in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the verse ...
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1answer
357 views

Why does Revelation 8:1 use ὅταν instead of ὅτε?

I do not know Greek, so hopefully I am not just embarrassing myself with this question; but here goes. For the first six seals in Revelation, John introduces them using ὅτε: 1 - Καὶ εἶδον ὅτε ...
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5answers
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What is the difference between the μορφῇ of God and the εἶδος of God?

who, though he was in the form [morphe] of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped (Philippians 2:6 ESV). And the Father who sent me has himself borne witness about me. His ...
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4answers
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In 1 Tim 2:12, how does αὐθεντεῖν (αὐθεντεω) differ from the more commonly used ἐξουσιάζω?

SBLGNT: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω, οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ’ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ. From what I can tell, this is the only use of any form of this word (often translated "to exercise authority"...
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2answers
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What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions?Is it “only” or “only-begotten”?

What are the translations of the Greek word μονογενής in Ancient Versions? What are the rendering of μονογενής into Ancient Versions of the *NT passages? Hebrew Arabic: Ethiopic: Syriac (Aramaic): ...
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9answers
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What does the word “prototokos” mean in Colossians 1:15?

What does the Greek word "prototokos" mean in English as used in Colossians 1:15? Col 1:15 The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn [prōtotokos] over all creation. [NIV] ...
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1answer
613 views

Did Chrysostom's Text Say a “Double Sabbath” was One Day? or Two?

Related: - What does sabbaton deuteroproton in Luke 6:1 refer to? - Do Idioms Used in the Crucifixion Narrative Resolve the "3 Day/3 Night" Objections? 1. Question: Homilies on Matthew (...
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Is there any significance behind Jesus' use of the word “love” in “John 21:15-17”

In John 21:15-17 (ESV), we read: 15 When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?” He said to him, “Yes, Lord; you know that ...
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3answers
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Those who believe are “especially” saved?

1 Timothy 4:10 (NET emphasis mine) reads: In fact this is why we work hard and struggle, because we have set our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all people, especially of believers. ...
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5answers
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Since BDAG says “και” suggests a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 that justifies that “our Great God” is the Father and not Jesus, is και adjunctive?

Since BDAG says "και" suggests a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 that justifies that “our Great God” is the Father and not Jesus, is και adjunctive?
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In 2 Peter 1:4 what does Peter mean by “partakers of the divine nature”?

3His divine power has granted to us all things that pertain to life and godliness, through the knowledge of him who called us to his own glory and excellence, 4by which he has granted to us his ...
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5answers
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What was meant by “paradise” when Jesus spoke to the thief on the cross?

As he was crucified, Jesus engaged in a conversation with one of the thieves hung along side him. At the end of that conversation is this pronouncement: Luke 23:43 (ESV) 43 And he said to him, "...
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3answers
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What is the difference between πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ and πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν?

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 3:15-16 (SBLGNT) 15 ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ἐν αὐτῷ ἔχῃ ζωὴν αἰώνιον. 16 Οὕτως γὰρ ἠγάπησεν ὁ θεὸς τὸν κόσμον ὥστε τὸν υἱὸν τὸν μονογενῆ ἔδωκεν, ἵνα πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων εἰς αὐτὸν μὴ ἀπόληται ἀλλὰ ...
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What is the correct translation of ἁμαρτίαν in 2 Corinthians 5:21? What did God make Jesus?

The Greek text of 2 Cor. 5:21 has been translated in various ways: τὸν γὰρ μὴ γνόντα ἁμαρτίαν ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἁμαρτίαν ἐποίησεν ἵνα ἡμεῖς γινώμεθα δικαιοσύνη θεοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ If the translation of ἁμαρτίαν ...
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4answers
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The meaning of παρασκευή ('day of preparation')

Background I realise that the word παρασκευή has a wider range then just a reference to a day, for example Eph 6:15 is not a reference to a specific day however it is the understanding of this term ...
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6answers
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In Hebrews 1:2, to what does the Greek word «αἰῶνας» refer?

In Heb. 1:1-2, the Greek text according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ Πολυμερῶς καὶ πολυτρόπως πάλαι ὁ θεὸς λαλήσας τοῖς πατράσιν ἐν τοῖς προφήταις Βʹ ἐπ᾽ ἐσχάτων τῶν ἡμερῶν τούτων ἐλάλησεν ...
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3answers
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What does the term “principalities and powers” mean?

In some translations, I see the term "principalities and powers." To what does this refer? This will not be exhaustive, but for example, consider the KJV's translation of Romans 8:38-39: For I am ...
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8answers
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What did Jesus mean by “be perfect” in the Sermon on the Mount?

I asked this on the Christianity Stack Exchange site, and they told me it would be better here. So I here I am asking it... Therefore you shall be perfect, just as your Father in heaven is perfect. ...
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7answers
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Did Matthew intend “evil” or “the evil one” in the Lord’s Prayer?

I previously asked a question about how to understand these words in the language Jesus was originally speaking. However, the text we have is in Greek, and I realized I’m not as familiar with the ...
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4answers
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(John 3:16) Greek: Only Begotten

John 3:16, “For God so loved the world that he gave his only (μονογενῆ) Son, so that everyone who believes in him may not perish but may have eternal life." My question resides in the greek term ...
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5answers
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Can αδελφοί refer to cousins?

Matthew 13:55-56a (ESV) Is not this the carpenter's son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas? And are not all his sisters with us? SBLGNT ...
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4answers
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Has the meaning of “Love” changed enough to warrant substitutions in Bible translations?

The culturally accepted uses of the word "Love" seem to be a trite shadow of its biblical meaning. Common use of "Love" is now interchangeable with "Like," "Enjoy," or "Emotionally attachment" of ...
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2answers
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Why didn't the Septuagint translate 'ahabah to eros?

Song of Songs 2:7 in English (NPJS) reads: I adjure you, O maidens of Jerusalem, By gazelles or by hinds of the field: Do not wake or rouse Love until it please! As the NET Bible points out, ...
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1answer
213 views

In the Gospels, Can “Day of:” the Passover - be Interpreted Idiomatically?

Related: - The Correct Research Methodology To Substantiate If an Expression is an Idiom? - In the early church, was the Last Supper Considered a Passover Feast? - The meaning of παρασκευή ('day ...
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4answers
828 views

Luke 23:54 - How should “Sabbath Dawning” be Interpreted?

The Syriac of Luke 23:54 seems to affirm an interpretation of "Sabbath Dawning". In addition, the same word seems to be used 43 times in the Syriac New Testament to mean "Dawn". So,...
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2answers
547 views

Should Matthew 28:17b be understood in a “partitive” or “inclusive” sense?

There are two distinct linguistic issues in the latter part of Matthew 28:17, which reads this way (NA28 = SBL GNT = UBS4) - καὶ ἰδόντες αὐτὸν προσεκύνησαν,a οἱ δὲ ἐδίστασαν. kai idontes auton ...
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3answers
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Angel or messenger?

Often, it is clear from context whether מלאך and αγγελος refer to a human messenger or an angelic messenger. For example, if a מלאך or αγγελος is sent by a human, then the messenger is likely human. ...
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3answers
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In Ephesians 2:2, to what or whom does “the authority of the air” refer?

In Eph. 2:2, it is written, in which once ye did walk according to the age of this world, according to the ruler of the authority of the air, of the spirit that is now working in the sons of ...
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1answer
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Meaning of ἐνδημέω and ἐκδημέω in 2 Cor 5?

I was studying 2 Corinthians 5:1-10 when I noticed that two terms that play a major part in its interpretation are very unusual Greek words: ἐνδημέω - endēmeō ἐκδημέω - ekdēmeō They are clearly ...
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3answers
229 views

Does the Didache dictate that the “Lord's Supper” was to involve a real meal?

A commentary I came across said that the Didache indicated that its audience would have a meal in conjunction with the "Eucharist" but when I looked for the reference it seems it is ambiguous (of ...
4
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2answers
179 views

Does τὸν ὄντα correspond to יהוה in Wisdom 13:1?

Wisdom 13:1-5 (translation mine) 1 Truly vain are all men by [their] nature in whom there is not the knowledge of God: who, though they have seen the good things [of creation], do not know him that is....
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2answers
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How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17?

How do you reconcile world (κόσμος) in 1 John 2:15-17 with John 3:16-17? κόσμος has obviously different meanings as used in the following two passages. For God so loved the world, that he gave ...
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8answers
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Should John 1:18 read “the only begotten God”?

I was reading my New King James version of the Bible and found a footnote for this verse: John 1:18 (NKJV) No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son,[a] who is in the bosom of the ...
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5answers
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To what does the time clause connect in Revelation 13:8?

I noticed that there are several ways that English translations render Revelation 13:8. There is a potentially significant difference in how the clauses connect, but most translations are a little bit ...
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4answers
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If Joshua can be translated why Is the name of Jesus translated “Jesus” but his name in hebrew was Joshua?

This question is in regard to Matthew 1:21, "His name shall be called Jesus for he will save his people from their sins." The question has two parts. 1) Strongs equates the name "Jesus" with the ...
21
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6answers
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Was “Τετέλεσται” actually stamped on paid bills and debt certificates in the first century?

I've often heard some really cool explanations around the meaning for the greek word Τετέλεσται in the New Testament where Jesus said, "It is Finished". I love what I've heard, and have even preached ...
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6answers
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What is the meaning of “calculate” in Revelation 13:18?

This is perhaps the most famous prophesy in popular culture: This calls for wisdom: let the one who has understanding calculate the number of the beast, for it is the number of a man, and his ...
12
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4answers
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Jude 7 - What Does “Strange Flesh” Mean?

Question: Is there any textual basis (in the Septuagint, or extant secular literature), to find that "strange flesh" refers to homosexuality? Is "σαρκὸς ἑτέρας" ever idiomatic in Literary or ...
7
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7answers
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What is the meaning of the Greek word λόγος in John 1:1?

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. John 1:1 (Westcott and Hort 1881) The Greek word λόγος has more than one meaning. It means 'word','speech','divine ...
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6answers
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Mark 7:19 - Does Jesus Really Declare “All Foods Clean?”

The KJV and NASB transliterations of this verse do not seem to be 100% correct. Greek Word for word in Context "since not it enters her/he into mind/soul, rather/but, into the lower belly (...

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