Questions tagged [greek]

Koiné (from κοινή, "common") Greek was the form of post-classical Greek spoken and written in Hellenistic and Roman antiquity. It is the language of the Septuagint (LXX), Christian New Testament, and most early Christian theological writings.

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
2
votes
3answers
96 views

In what sense is the word ἀνακρίνει used in 1 Corinthians 2:15?

NA 28 1 Corinthians 2:15 15ὁ δὲ πνευματικὸς ἀνακρίνει [τὰ] πάντα, αὐτὸς δὲ ὑπ’ οὐδενὸς ἀνακρίνεται. 1 Corinthians 2:15 KJV 15 But he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is ...
3
votes
1answer
26 views

In John 3:16 why the shift to aorist and perfect tense verbs?

In John 3:16 starting with ἠγάπησεν (aorist), the verbs shift to tenses signifying past actions. Does this mean Jesus' discourse with Nicodemus stopped with 3:15, and 3:16 starts John's narrative? .....
2
votes
3answers
106 views

Should 'repent' and 'believe' be understood as often referring to the same event or act in the process of salvation?

Should repentance and belief at time be understood to refer to the same thing or two different ways of describing the same mental change? Again my suggestion isn't that they mean the exact same thing, ...
4
votes
3answers
65 views

John 3:16 - Might οὕτως be a reference to Moses?

I am a pastor and not a Greek scholar, but I had an interesting conversation with a Bible translator friend over this verse yesterday. The curiosity lies in the fact that basically all translations ...
1
vote
1answer
44 views

Are there two separate reasons given for wanting to stone Jesus?

Beginning in Chapter 5, John details how the Jews wanted to kill Jesus. First, the intent is described: for making Himself equal to God (5:18). Then the manner of death they picked up stones to throw ...
2
votes
5answers
4k views

Two words for love in John 21:15–17

I haven't found a way to search to see if questions on specific Biblical passages have already been asked. I'm trying to find out if anyone has dealt with Jesus' possible Hebrew/Aramaic words in the ...
3
votes
2answers
241 views

What is hell? sheol/hades/prison/lake of fire/outer darkness

This question looks at 5 contexts which refer to hell, how the word is used, and what it means. 1. For thou wilt not leave my soul in hell; neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. ...
3
votes
2answers
220 views

Meaning of “quick” or “quickly”

Revelation 22:20 (KJV): He which testifieth these things saith, Surely I come quickly. Amen. Even so, come, Lord Jesus. There is a veritable plethora of questions on this site and SE-Christianity ...
5
votes
3answers
7k views

What does “Defiled with women” mean in context with Rev. 14:4?

Rev. 14:4, These are they which were not defiled with women; for they are virgins. These are they which follow the Lamb whithersoever he goeth. These were redeemed from among men, being the ...
23
votes
18answers
15k views

Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?

Revelation 3:14 (KJV) 14 And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God; Most ...
3
votes
3answers
134 views

Does “asleep” in 1 Corinthians 15 mean that the dead are unconscious prior to the resurrection?

Inspired by discussion from this question The New Testament regularly refers to the dead as "asleep". This occurs several times in 1 Corinthians 15, such as: 20 But now is Christ risen ...
2
votes
3answers
104 views

“I am” in Greek Septuagint translation of Exodus 3:14 vs. John 8:58 - how do they compare?

Exodus 3:14 YLT And God saith unto Moses, 'I AM THAT WHICH I AM;' He saith also, 'Thus dost thou say to the sons of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. How does the translation of the Greek ...
1
vote
2answers
65 views

Who emptied himself in Philippians 2 :6-7? What does empty mean? [duplicate]

Philippians 2:6-7 KJV says 6 who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in ...
29
votes
13answers
5k views

Is NWT's translation of John 8:58 reasonable?

I already assumed the opposite in an answer to why there are so many Bible translations, on Christianity.SE. Now that we have an expert community, I'd like to check. The translators of the New World ...
2
votes
1answer
27 views

In John 16:28 shouldn't πάλιν go with πορεύομαι πρὸς τὸν πατέρα meaning “I'm returning to the Father.”

Note the more frequent use of πάλιν in the Septuagint (LXX) is to with translating the Hebrew verb meaning return. That is also a common meaning in the New Testament when used with a word meaning ...
1
vote
3answers
165 views

What is Hebrews 3:14 saying to do with “our confidence”?

[Heb 3:14 ASV] for we are become partakers of Christ, if we hold fast the beginning of our confidence firm unto the end: What is he saying about "hold fast the beginning of our confidence firm unto ...
3
votes
1answer
103 views

What is the best understanding of the use of καί in the beginning verses of John's Prologue?

Many see John's Prologue arranged using a literary device1in which the first two verses are a single thought: In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. This ...
37
votes
9answers
6k views

Does Romans 9:5 assert the deity of Christ?

Also known by the more pedestrian title: How should Romans 9:5 be punctuated? Romans 9:5, NA28 (punctuation omitted): ὧν οἱ πατέρες καὶ ἐξ ὧν ὁ Χριστὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα ὁ ὢν ἐπὶ πάντων θεὸς ...
4
votes
4answers
940 views

Correct/true translation of Revelation 13:18

It was brought to my attention that the original Greek says that "....for the number is that of a man", should actually read "....for the number is that of man". This infers that the "number" is tied ...
6
votes
1answer
930 views

What did John mean by “second sign” (δεύτερον σημεῖον) in John 4:54?

What did John mean by “second sign” (δεύτερον σημεῖον) in John 4:54? This was now the second sign that Jesus did when he had come from Judea to Galilee. (John 4:54, ESV) Τοῦτο [δὲ] πάλιν δεύτερον ...
-1
votes
1answer
29 views

Where to start with the Apostolic Fathers [closed]

I'm looking to start reading the Apostolic Fathers (in Koine), using Michael Holmes' The Apostolic Fathers. Which of the fathers' Greek is most accessible, or most similar to that of the New Testament?...
1
vote
2answers
92 views

What is Paul saying in Romans 1:4?

[Romans 1:4 MGNT] (4) τοῦ ὁρισθέντος υἱοῦ θεοῦ ἐν δυνάμει κατὰ πνεῦμα ἁγιωσύνης ἐξ ἀναστάσεως νεκρῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Here are a couple of English translations: [Romans 1:4 NASB20] (4) ...
10
votes
4answers
744 views

What is the difference between ζωὴ and ψυχὴ?

The word "life" appears in most translations of John 12:25 three times. For example, in the ESV: Whoever loves his life loses it, and whoever hates his life in this world will keep it for eternal ...
2
votes
4answers
162 views

What does “anasteso” mean in John 6:39?

"And this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise [anasteso] it up on the last day" ESV. John 6:39 says "raise" it on the ...
1
vote
2answers
138 views

Is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:8? If not, what grammatical reason prevents it?

Is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:8? If not, what grammatical reason prevents it? Note: Keep in mind and address that Wallace says "Most individualizing ...
2
votes
3answers
115 views

What is the earnest of the Spirit?

The "earnest of the Spirit" is a phrase unique to Paul in the New Testament. The Greek word ἀρραβῶνα is also rendered as "pledge" or "guarantee" in some translations. ...
2
votes
6answers
9k views

What is the meaning of “lampstand” in Revelation 2:5?

What is the meaning of "lampstand" in Revelation 2:5 ? Remember therefore from where you have fallen; repent, and do the works you did at first. If not, I will come to you and remove your ...
3
votes
2answers
546 views

Is a translation of John 1:10 with 'it' instead of 'he' and 'him' grammatically problematic?

John 1:10 is usually translated using 'he' and 'him', for example "He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him." (Berean Study Bible) ...
5
votes
1answer
60 views

μέν … δέ with trailling καὶ

In English, it is idiomatic to have the word 'and' before the last item in a list, such as "I like coffee, tea, and beer" (with or without the last comma!). In Ephesians 4:11, there is a &...
8
votes
3answers
437 views

How might Matthew 16:22 in the Codex Vaticanus be best translated to reflect the etymology of the text?

While translating Matthew 16 today, I ran across what the NET Bible calls a "highly elliptical expression" in verse 22: καὶ προσλαβόμενος αὐτὸν ὁ Πέτρος ἤρξατο ἐπιτιμᾶν αὐτῷ λέγων· Ἵλεώς ...
3
votes
3answers
63 views

With what writings was Apollos mighty?

Acts 18:24 And a certain Jew named Apollos, born at Alexandria, an eloquent man, and mighty in the scriptures, came to Ephesus. The word usually rendered here as "scriptures" is γραφαῖς (...
2
votes
1answer
81 views

Are there any non-NT examples, from the Koine Greek, of an author using the phrase “truly, truly?” [closed]

I've read different interpretations of the significance of Jesus' use of "truly, truly," in the Gospels. From the very pious and serious, to an argument that Jesus is basically cracking ...
2
votes
3answers
88 views

In John 1:14 what does ἐσκήνωσεν mean?

Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν,* καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας. (John 1:14, NA28) Usually commentators point out that ...
2
votes
2answers
45 views

Is 'foundation' the best translation for Gr. 'katabole'?

Matthew 25:34 – Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world. (also Heb 4:3, Eph 1:4, 1Pet ...
1
vote
1answer
15 views

Luke 10:9-11 Ἤγγικεν ἐφʼ ὑμᾶς and Ἤγγικεν same or different?

Luke 10:9-11 reads: 9 καὶ θεραπεύετε τοὺς ἐν αὐτῇ ἀσθενεῖς, καὶ λέγετε αὐτοῖς· Ἤγγικεν ἐφʼ ὑμᾶς ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ. 10 εἰς ἣν δʼ ἂν πόλιν εἰσέλθητε καὶ μὴ δέχωνται ὑμᾶς, ἐξελθόντες εἰς τὰς ...
7
votes
1answer
45 views

Why might the KJV and YLT translations of James 2:1 ('Lord' of glory) differ?

This is a question about the KJV and the TR Greek text. ... του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου της δοξης [James 2:1 TR - Stephens, Beza, Elzevir, Scrivener - identical] ... our Lord Jesus Christ, the ...
2
votes
1answer
21 views

In John 1:6 why is ἀπεσταλμένος perfect tense?

Ἐγένετο ἄνθρωπος, ἀπεσταλμένος παρὰ* ⸀θεοῦ, ⸆ ὄνομα αὐτῷ Ἰωάννης· (John 1:6, NA28) The perfect passive particle ἀπεσταλμένος is as if John the Baptist were still active in his ministry when John ...
2
votes
2answers
113 views

What is the implication of “satisfied” or “filled” in the Synoptic feeding of the multitude stories?

In the story of the feeding of the 4000, Matthew 15:37 reads: And they all ate and were satisfied. [ESV; cf. NIV, NASB, NET] So they all ate and were filled. [NKJV; cf. KJV, HCSB] They all ate ...
2
votes
2answers
310 views

Luke 24:38 hearts or minds?

Luke 24:38 New International Version He said to them, "Why are you troubled, and why do doubts rise in your minds? English Standard Version And he said to them, “Why are you troubled, and why ...
1
vote
2answers
217 views

What does “raca” mean?

What does "raca" mean? I have seen people claim it means the stereotype of a "camp"/"effeminate" male. What would they back then even consider masculine, when they were ...
6
votes
6answers
1k views

Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as “declare Yourself to be God” as opposed to “a god”?

John 10:33 is typically translated as something like "“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”"...
9
votes
7answers
3k views

Is He “who searches hearts” the Holy Spirit or the Father (Romans 8:27)?

My question is a bit two-fold. It's regarding the proper understanding of Romans 8:26-27, specifically verse 27. Recently, I've come to disagree with many commentator's understanding of this passage. ...
4
votes
1answer
31 views

Greek: Jerusalem, why is this sometimes plural?

I'm trying to understand the use of the city name Jerusalem in the New Testament. In some places, it appears as a proper noun, singular, feminine (Strongs 2419), And then in other places, it appears ...
3
votes
2answers
94 views

What does μή μου ἅπτου mean in John 20:17?

Much depends on how you translate the present middle imperative verb ἅπτου. Robertson's interpretation is "stop clinging" because "don't touch" would be aorist middle imperative. ...
4
votes
2answers
155 views

What is the significance of the use of different pronouns in Romans 8:30?

28 And we know that all things are working-together for good for the ones loving God, the ones being called ones according to His purpose. 29 Because whom He foreknew, He also predestined to be ...
3
votes
1answer
22 views

Does the Greek verb for tithing indicate repeated action?

In Hebrews 7:6 several versions translate Melchizedek as “receiving tithes” in the plural (KVJ, NKJV, ESV, HCSB, ASV, and YLT) while many other versions have it in the singular “collected a tenth.” (...
4
votes
5answers
3k views

What does James 1:17 mean by 'perfect gift'?

Every good and perfect gift is from above, coming down from the Father of the heavenly lights, who does not change like shifting shadows. (James 1:17, NIV) According to scripture & academics, ...
2
votes
1answer
22 views

Matthew 26:45 KJV sleep on now meaning

Here is the KJV translation of first part of Matthew 26:45: 45 Then cometh he to his disciples, and saith unto them, Sleep on now, and take your rest: Compare to the ESV: 45 Then he came to the ...
2
votes
1answer
27 views

Why is the subject of the verb “they” instead of “Herod” in Mark 6:14

I have a question regarding the translation of ἔλεγεν, in Mark 6:14: Καὶ ἤκουσεν ὁ βασιλεὺς Ἡρῴδης, φανερὸν γὰρ ἐγένετο τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ , καὶ ἔλεγεν ὅτι Ἰωάννης ὁ βαπτιζων ἐκ νεκρῶν ἠγέρθη Translated ...
5
votes
6answers
4k views

In John 20:17 did Jesus say “do not touch me” or “stop clinging to me”?

In some translations we find something like: John 20:17 (KJV) Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto ...

1
2 3 4 5
25