Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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3
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1answer
64 views

“זֶה … וְזֶה” referring to the same or different entities

The construction זֶה ... וְזֶה can indicate both "one ... the other ..." and "this one ... this one", so the entity that the two זֶהs refer to can be the same or different. This is shown by Song 5:16 (...
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1answer
222 views

Ephesians 2:8, why is “πίστις” in the Genitive?

Sorry if this seems like a dumb question but I am not well versed with N.T. Greek Grammar, but I am decently versed with Germanic grammar, which is probably too different in some cases to be ...
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2answers
688 views

Genesis 19:13 “the cry of them” צַעֲקָתָם?

In Genesis 18:20 and 19:13 the reason is given for the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah: (Westminster Leningrad Codex interlinear with vowels) And the LORD said, Because the cry of Sodom and ...
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2answers
70 views

1 Tim 6:13 - need direction for Greek grammar, please

1 Tim 6:13 in the KJV has: I give thee charge in the sight of God The Amplified (classis) reads: I [solemnly] charge you I have been studying the Bible for 40 years as a layman with no formal ...
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2answers
202 views

Which is the main verb of the sentence in 2 Peter 1,3-4?

I have been struggling to locate the main verb in the sentence that comprises 2 Peter 1,3-4. NA28 gives full stops at the end of verses 2 and 4. Thus, if verses 3-4 are punctuated as a complete ...
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1answer
111 views

What is the mood of {יהיו} in Psalm 19:15

יהיו לרצון they shall be of desiring/liking אםרי פי speech of my mouth והגיון לבי and reasoning/logic of my heart לפניך יי צורי וגאלי before you Hashem my rock and my redeemer. What is the ...
2
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3answers
199 views

Subjective or objective genitive found in 1 Tim 3:6?

The passage of 1 Tim 3:6 reads as follows (KJV) - Not a novice, lest being lifted up with pride he fall into the condemnation of the devil. μὴ νεόφυτον, ἵνα μὴ τυφωθεὶς εἰς κρίμα ἐμπέσῃ τοῦ ...
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2answers
314 views

Is 'darkness upon' in Genesis 1:2 cosmic, rather than merely terrestrial, despite that the central subject and Biblical grammar suggests the latter?

Is 'darkness upon' in Genesis 1:2 cosmic, rather than merely terrestrial, despite that the central subject (Earth) and Biblical Hebrew grammar (ex:Luke 23:44, Exodus 14:20, Deuteronomy 4:11, Joshua ...
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3answers
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Why did angels speak a sentence of eleven words without a verb?

Δοζα εν υφιστοις Θεω Glory in highest Godward και επι γης ειρηνη and upon earth peace εν ανθρωποις ευδοκια in humanity goodwill Note : ...
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Is it 'He who Overcomes' or 'They who Overcome' in Rev chapters 2 and 3

The below references in Revelation speak of 'He' who overcomes. Several people present this to me as being one person, someone that is alive currently - or will come in the future. Does the original ...
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2answers
458 views

In Jeremiah 29:8 what kind of dream was Israel not to listen to?

In Jeremiah, which dreams is God saying to not listen to? NKJV, Jeremiah 29:8 - For thus says the Lord of hosts, the God of Israel: Do not let your prophets and your diviners who are in your ...
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1answer
285 views

Most accurate version of the Bible? [closed]

According to linguistics, history and culture which version of the Bible today is most accurate translation of the ancient original?
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3answers
374 views

Why do λέγω and εἴπατε both have the same Strong's number (3004)?

The difference in meaning between Matthew 10:27 and Luke 12:3 depends utterly on one word. If this word is swapped the verses are parallel. We might expect the passages are exactly parallel because ...
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1answer
2k views

“Let there be light,” or “He is becoming light?”

I recently came across someone writing on his own website on a wide variety of biblical subjects, and have found a great many of the ideas he writes on to be highly questionable. One of the ideas He ...
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4answers
849 views

What was sanctified by the blood in Hebrews 10:29?

The subject of the verb αγιάζω in Hebrews 10:29 could be either "the covenant" or "one [...] who has trampled the Son of God underfoot" so: 1. What was sanctified by the blood? 2. Why do most ...
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3answers
154 views

What is the part of speech and meaning of אַ֚ף in Gn 3:1?

The word אַף is often used as a noun meaning "nose", "nostril", or "anger", but here it is used in a different way. The Scholars Gateway parses it as a conjunction, and my iPhone app parses it as a ...
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3answers
779 views

How do you parse this verb (וְהִשְׁקָה)?

In Genesis 2:6, there is a verb which seems to be a hiphil verb (3sg fem.) but it doesn't fit the normal pattern of conjugation. וְאֵד יַעֲלֶה מִן־הָאָרֶץ וְהִשְׁקָה אֶת־כָּל־פְּנֵי־הָאֲדָמָה׃ ...
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1answer
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Why is this verb “לַעֲשׂוֹת” infinitive? (Gn 2:3)

I'm a little confused as to why this verb, לַעֲשׂוֹת, is in the infinitive. It belongs to the clause אֲשֶׁר-בָּרָא אֱלֹהִים לַעֲשׂוֹת, which I translate as "which God had created and made". ...
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1answer
137 views

Is Vulgate John 8:25 a grammatically valid translation of the Greek?

For John 8:25, the Vulgate has: Dicébant ergo ei: Tu quis es? Dixit eis Jesus: Princípium, qui et loquor vobis. They said therefore to him: Who art thou? Jesus said to them: The beginning, ...
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551 views

What does χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος mean in Jn 1:16?

I read this question and the edifying answers (which apparently deserve more upvotes), but I find myself with yet another question on the verse. What does χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος mean at the end of the ...
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1answer
104 views

רָעָ֔ה in Jeremiah 29:11 - what part of speech?

In this fragment of Jeremiah 29:11 (plans of shalom and not evil): מַחְשְׁבֹ֤ות שָׁלֹום֙ וְלֹ֣א לְרָעָ֔ה I've got Bible Works (v6) parsing לְרָעָ֔ה as an adjective (with leading particle preposition)...
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3answers
261 views

Should the participle κολλώμενος in 1 Corinthians 6:17 be translated as “he that is joined to the Lord” or “he that is joining to the Lord”?

But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit -- 1 Corinthians 6:17 (KJV) In my translation it says "he who is joining", thus presenting quite a different perspective on the matter. I wonder ...
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1answer
94 views

What is an accepatable translation of the Greek in Wisdom 1:14

Which is the most accurate rendering of the meaning of the Greek in this verse? In particular, the phrase ἔκτισεν γὰρ εἰς τὸ εἶναι τὰ πάντα καὶ σωτήριοι αἱ γενέσεις τοῦ κόσμου: Wisdom 1:14 LXX ...
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1answer
88 views

What is the significance of μέρει in Colossians 2:16?

Μὴ οὖν τις ὑμᾶς κρινέτω ἐν βρώσει καὶ ἐν πόσει ἢ ἐν μέρει ἑορτῆς ἢ νεομηνίας ἢ σαββάτων, NA27 The list of items in which not to allow yourselves to be judged is delimited by ἐν: «ἐν βρώσει...ἐν πόσει....
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5answers
886 views

Grammatically, is 2 Timothy 3:16-17 inclusive or exclusive?

This closely related question has an answer that tries to argue in a theological point of view. However, I would like to discuss this topic from a purely grammatical perspective. πᾶσα γραφὴ ...
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1answer
89 views

May Luke 1:28 be so translated as to implicitly say Jesus is κεχαριτωμένος to Mary’s κεχαριτωμένη?

The Greek for Luke 1:28 is: καὶ εἰσελθὼν πρὸς αὐτὴν εἶπεν “Χαῖρε, κεχαριτωμένη, ὁ Κύριος * μετὰ σοῦ ⧼εὐλογημένη σὺ * ἐν γυναιξίν⧽ *Verb 'to be' lacking. Part 1) Could it be thus translated, in ...
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0answers
147 views

Are the “indecent acts” (NIV) or “men with men working” (KJV) in Ro. 1:27 referring to specific acts or all acts with the same sex? [duplicate]

I was asked if anal sex is a sin, and I could not find any biblical reference of indication either way. The closest I could find was Ro. 1:27; "committing indecent acts (the shameless deed NASB)." ...
3
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1answer
236 views

How to make sense of ζωὴν αἰώνιον? (John 3:36)

I was reading the following verse, from John, and I came across the phrase ζωὴν αἰώνιον. This phrase looks odd to me, since ζωὴν is feminine, and at first glance, αἰώνιον would seem to be masculine or ...
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1answer
75 views

Why is this future verb translated as a perfect? (John 2:17)

In both the Douay-Rheims and its source, the Vulgate, the word καταφάγεταί (future tense) is translated as a verb in the perfect tense. And his disciples remembered, that it was written: The zeal ...
4
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1answer
181 views

Does 1 Tim 5:17 indicate a real distinction between ruling vs teaching elders?

1 Tim 5:17 (ESV) Let the elders who rule well be considered worthy of double honor, especially those who labor in preaching and teaching. 1 Tim 3:2 (ESV) Therefore an overseer must be above ...
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2answers
265 views

Ephesians 2:8 and the omission of τῆς [closed]

The phrase, διὰ τῆς πίστεως , is shared in Col. 2:12 and Eph. 2:8, meaning "through the Faith". Colossians 2:12 reads, "Buried together with him in Baptism, in whom also ye have resurrected through ...
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1answer
126 views

Proverbs 31:16 - Did the woman use her resources to purchase the field?

זָמְמָ֣ה שָׂ֭דֶה וַתִּקָּחֵ֑הוּ מִפְּרִ֥י כַ֝פֶּ֗יהָ נטע כ נָ֣טְעָה ק כָּֽרֶם׃ Typically this is translated to indicate the woman bought a field...and from her resources she also planted a vineyard: ...
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1answer
55 views

In Luke 23:2, is “an anointed king” a possible translation of «Χριστὸν βασιλέα»?

In Luke 23:2, the Greek text states, Βʹ ἤρξαντο δὲ κατηγορεῖν αὐτοῦ λέγοντες Τοῦτον εὕρομεν διαστρέφοντα τὸ ἔθνος καὶ κωλύοντα Καίσαρι φόρους διδόναι λέγοντα ἑαυτὸν Χριστὸν βασιλέα εἶναι TR, 1550 ...
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1answer
79 views

Why do some texts have αὐτὸν in this verse, whereas others do not? (Mark 12:34)

The NA28 text gives the following version of Mark 12:34. καὶ ὁ Ἰησοῦς ἰδὼν [αὐτὸν] ὅτι νουνεχῶς ἀπεκρίθη εἶπεν αὐτῷ· οὐ μακρὰν εἶ ἀπὸ τῆς βασιλείας τοῦ θεοῦ. Καὶ οὐδεὶς οὐκέτι ἐτόλμα αὐτὸν ...
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2answers
126 views

Why does ὅλης have predicate position in Mark 12:30?

Here is the NA28 text for Mark 12:30: καὶ ἀγαπήσεις κύριον τὸν θεόν σου ἐξ ὅλης τῆς καρδίας σου καὶ ἐξ ὅλης τῆς ψυχῆς σου καὶ ἐξ ὅλης τῆς διανοίας σου καὶ ἐξ ὅλης τῆς ἰσχύος σου. And here is my ...
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2answers
251 views

In Titus 1:5, what is the meaning of καταστήσῃς?

In Titus 1:5, it is written, Εʹ Τούτου χάριν κατέλιπόν σε ἐν Κρήτῃ ἵνα τὰ λείποντα ἐπιδιορθώσῃ καὶ καταστήσῃς κατὰ πόλιν πρεσβυτέρους ὡς ἐγώ σοι διεταξάμην TR, 1550 My question concerns the ...
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2answers
185 views

What's the difference in Gen. 3:15 in the Septuagint in the word σπέρματος and σπέρματός

In the Septuagint, Gen. 3:15 says this: καὶ ἔχθραν θήσω ἀνὰ μέσον σου καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τῆς γυναικὸς καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τοῦ σπέρματός σου καὶ ἀνὰ μέσον τοῦ σπέρματος αὐτῆς· αὐτός σου τηρήσει κεφαλήν, καὶ σὺ ...
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1answer
137 views

Zephaniah 3:9 - 'People' or 'Peoples'?

Various translations disagree over whether Zephaniah 3:9's עַמִּ֖ים (amm-im) should be 'people' or 'peoples'. A multitude of nations are mentioned throughout Zephaniah, but apart from this single ...
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5answers
839 views

What does the phrase “as in all the churches” modify in 1 Corinthians 14:33-34?

In 1 Corinthians 14:33-34, does the phrase "as in all the churches" refer to "God is not a God of confusion, but of peace," or "let the women keep silent?" Specifically, in the manuscripts that place ...
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1answer
85 views

Hebrews 11:28 Destroyer or Destroyer of firstborns?

Hebrews 11:28 reads: πίστει πεποίηκεν τὸ πάσχα καὶ τὴν πρόσχυσιν τοῦ αἵματος, ἵνα μὴ ὁ ὀλοθρεύων τὰ πρωτότοκα θίγῃ αὐτῶν. (SBL) The majority of translations render the second clause of this ...
3
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2answers
372 views

In John 5:39 is ἐραυνᾶτε (“search”) indicative, imperative or both?

I understand that the Greek word (ἐραυνᾶτε) for "search" in John 5:39 (ESV) can be taken as imperative or indicative. In Greek, is there any possibility that both can be meant here, or only one has to ...
5
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1answer
216 views

Are altars named as a general rule?

We read of altars having names (Joshua 22:34, Exodus 17:15, Genesis 33:20, Judges 6:24). Without knowing Hebrew, I don't know if the proper inflection of the reading of the passages is more similar to ...
5
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1answer
88 views

To what end are the two subjunctives in Psalm 120,3 LXX?

Psalm 120 LXX 3 μὴ δῷς εἰς σάλον τὸν πόδα σου μηδὲ νυστάξῃ ὁ φυλάσσων σε To what end are the two subjunctives in Psalm 120,3 LXX? Do they indicate the intent of the One who is guarding? ...
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2answers
182 views

Who are “they” in Nehemiah 8:8?

The Bible is clear that Ezra was reading the Law (Nehemiah 8:3) and the Levites helped the people understand it (Nehemiah 8:7). And I learn that the first "they" in Nehemiah 8:8 refers to the Levites ...
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1answer
59 views

To whom or to what does αὐτοῖς refer in Ezra 5,12?

Ἔσδρας Βʹ 5, 11 καὶ τοιοῦτο ῥῆμα ἀπεκρίθησαν ἡμῖν λέγοντες ἡμεῖς ἐσμεν δοῦλοι τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ καὶ τῆς γῆς καὶ οἰκοδομοῦμεν τὸν οἶκον ὃς ἦν ᾠκοδομημένος πρὸ τούτου ἔτη πολλά καὶ βασιλεὺς τοῦ ...
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4answers
1k views

Is there a difference between “the sin” and “sin” in Romans?

In the Youngs Literal Translation, Romans 5:12 reads Romans 5:12 because of this, even as through one man the sin did enter into the world, and through the sin the death; and thus to all men the ...
7
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1answer
268 views

Why is διὰ παντὸς translated as “continually” in Hebrews 13:15?

I wonder if anyone can clarify why διὰ παντὸς is universally translated as continually here, in all modern translations? I looked up παντὸς in BDAG, but it didn't offer any clues, not sure what I am ...
3
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1answer
210 views

In Isa. 6:1, does “high and lifted up” modify “throne” or “the Lord”?

In Isa. 6:1, does "high and lifted up" modify "throne" or "the Lord"? I noticed that some English translations differ, and I would like if someone is able offer some help with the Hebrew here.
2
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1answer
339 views

Why does the Hebrew in Genesis 3:16 indicate that the man will rule “her” or “you” when it looks as if the Hebrew isn't a personal pronoun?

אֶֽל־הָאִשָּׁ֣ה אָמַ֗ר הַרְבָּ֤ה אַרְבֶּה֙ עִצְּבוֹנֵ֣ךְ וְהֵֽרֹנֵ֔ךְ בְּעֶ֖צֶב תֵּֽלְדִ֣י בָנִ֑ים וְאֶל־אִישֵׁךְ֙ תְּשׁ֣וּקָתֵ֔ךְ וְה֖וּא יִמְשָׁל־בָּֽךְ׃ In attempting to study Genesis 3:16, I can't understand why ...
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2answers
212 views

Question on John 14:6, with regards to the usage of the word “come.”

New International Version Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me. New Living Translation Jesus told him, "I am the way, the ...

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