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Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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Is the Son sealed, by the Father, 'as God' (John 6:27)?

... τουτον γαρ ο πατηρ εσφραγισεν ο θεος. [John 6:27 TR, undisputed] ... this he for the father did seal the deity. [Literal] ... for him did the father seal even God. [YLT] If one removes the ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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Why doesn’t Paul use a Greek word for “influence” in 1 Corinthians 15:33?

We read: “Do not be deceived: “Evil company corrupts good habits.”” ‭‭I Corinthians‬ ‭15:33‬ ‭NKJV ‬‬One might assume that Paul means evil company can corrupt good habits, but people are in control ...
Cork88's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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Psalm 68:4 - Does it contain a Beth Essentiae?

Psalm 68:4 (ESV), 4 Sing to God, sing praises to his name; lift up a song to him who rides through the deserts; his name is the LORD; exult before him! The Hebrew text for the phrase emboldened ...
The Votive Soul's user avatar
6 votes
4 answers
494 views

Isaiah 44:6 Distinction of persons or distinction of titles? (Grammar)

We read: “Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel, And his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts: ‘I am the First and I am the Last; Besides Me there is no God.” ‭‭Isaiah‬ ‭44:6‬ ‭NKJV‬‬ “Thus says Yahweh, the ...
Cork88's user avatar
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3 answers
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Why in Greek does Matthew 5:8 have "God/ton theon" with but Matthew 5:9 have "God/theou" without the article?

Matthew 5:8 "Blessed are the pure in heart, for they shall see God". ESV "God/ton theon". Matthew 5:9 "Blessed are the peacemakers, for they shall be called sons of God&...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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2 votes
4 answers
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Does 1 Corinthians 7:7 mean God sovereignly decree’s some people to be married & others to singleness?

We have the similar question: Is celibacy a gift according to 1 Corinthians 7:7? I’m not asking if Celibacy is a gift, but my question is: Q: Does 1 Corinthians 7:7 mean God predestines some to be ...
Cork88's user avatar
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3 votes
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552 views

"a temple", "the temple" or "temples" in 1 Corinthians 6:19?

1 Corinthians 6:19 ESV "Or do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit who is in you, whom you have from God, and you are not your own?" My emphasis. 1 Corinthians 6:19 ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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4 votes
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In what manner did God close up flesh after removing Adam's rib in Genesis 2:21?

(Genesis 2:21) And the Lord God caused a deep sleep to fall upon Adam, and he slept, and he took one of his ribs and closed up flesh in its place. I always used to visualize the verse like this: God ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
4 votes
2 answers
197 views

Why מצא instead of נמצא in Genesis 2:20?

(Genesis 2:20, Masoretic) וַיִּקְרָ֨א הָֽאָדָ֜ם שֵׁמֹ֗ות לְכָל־הַבְּהֵמָה֙ וּלְעֹ֣וף הַשָּׁמַ֔יִם וּלְכֹ֖ל חַיַּ֣ת הַשָּׂדֶ֑ה וּלְאָדָ֕ם לֹֽא־מָצָ֥א עֵ֖זֶר כְּנֶגְדֹּֽו׃ (DRB) And Adam called all the ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
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Is the Hebrew in Job 33:27 subjunctive?

KJV translates Job 33:27 as He looketh upon men, and if any say, I have sinned, and perverted that which was right, and it profited me not; ESV translates He sings before men and says: ‘I sinned ...
Any_mouse's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
726 views

Galatians 5:4 “fallen from grace/failed to grasp grace” Greek roots

I heard a Pastor through a teaching sermon on Galatians make mention that Galatians 5:4 is spoken from Paul in terms of “failing to grasp grace” rather than “falling from grace” as if justified ...
Cork88's user avatar
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5 votes
3 answers
341 views

Greek question Colossians 1:23

Looking at Colossians 1:23, specifically: which was preached to every creature under heaven (KJV & NKJV) has been proclaimed (ESV) It looks like most translations translate "κηρύσσω - ...
Todd's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
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Parsing and interpreting כָּל־הָעֵ֛ץ אֲשֶׁר־בֹּ֥ו פְרִי־עֵ֖ץ זֹרֵ֣עַ זָ֑רַע (Genesis 1:29)

Genesis 1:29 וַיֹּ֣אמֶר אֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּה֩ נָתַ֨תִּי לָכֶ֜ם אֶת־כָּל־עֵ֣שֶׂב ׀ זֹרֵ֣עַ זֶ֗רַע אֲשֶׁר֙ עַל־פְּנֵ֣י כָל־הָאָ֔רֶץ וְאֶת־כָּל־הָעֵ֛ץ אֲשֶׁר־בֹּ֥ו פְרִי־עֵ֖ץ זֹרֵ֣עַ זָ֑רַע לָכֶ֥ם יִֽהְיֶ֖ה ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
64 views

Does 'of us' relate to both 'word' and 'epistle' (2 Thess 2:15)?

αρα ουν αδελφοι στηκετε και κρατειτε τας παραδοσεις ας εδιδαχθητε ειτε δια λογου ειτε δι επιστολης ημων [Stephanus TR 1550] Therefore, brethren, stand fast, and hold the traditions which ye have been ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
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Congregation or congregrations? מקוה in Genesis 1:10

Genesis 1:10 ויקרא אלהים ליבשה ארץ ולמקוה המים קרא ימים וירא אלהים כי טוב Vulgate: Et vocavit Deus aridam Terram, congregationesque aquarum appellavit Maria. Et vidit Deus quod esset bonum. LXX: καὶ ...
Pascal's Wager's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
54 views

Is Hebrews 6:2 on the words "eternal judgement" in the Imperfect Aspect, Perfective Aspect, or Aoristic Aspect?

I am aware of my other question here: Hebrews 6:2 and the Greek understanding of "Eternal Judgement" Yet, I am still desiring to know more of the Greek structure of Hebrews 6:2 on the words &...
Cork88's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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Ibn Ezras approach to grammar in Song of Songs

Ibn Ezra is a well known 12th-century rabbi who is most famous for his work on Hebrew grammar. He renders song of songs 1:4 as "Draw me! were even the king to bring me to his apartments we would ...
Abijah's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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Is it feasible that the period in John 1:3-4 should be placed as καὶ χωρὶς αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο ⸂οὐδὲ(. here) ἕν ὃ γέγονεν ἐν αὐτῷ ζωὴ ἦν?

This would make sense (the period before ἕν): and one did not even come about without Him. One thing which came into being by Him was life. But no one seems to propose it. So, the thrust of this ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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What is the significance of γενόμενοι in Luke 1:2?

What is the significance of γενόμενοι in Luke 1:2? The translations seem to ignore it and translate Luke 1:2 the same as if it weren't there. I haven't found a source that references this question. ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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5 votes
7 answers
695 views

Greek grammar: how to understand noun-article-noun-article-noun in "Κύριος ὁ Θεός ὁ Παντοκράτωρ" (Lord God Almighty) - Revelation 4:8

In Revelation 4:8 the Lord is referred to as: Lord God Almighty The Greek is Κύριος ὁ Θεός ὁ Παντοκράτωρ Literally: Lord the God the Almighty (the Greek is idiomatic and we wouldn't actually ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
2k views

What is the full meaning of " propitiation" in the first segment of Romans 3:25 in the King James version?

In Romans chapter 3:25 Paul writes "Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood," the whom being Jesus Christ. Paul developes Romans and his understanding of our ...
Joshuabell's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
287 views

Luke 5:17 where is the power?

Looking at Luke 5:17 some of the translations will read: "And the power of the Lord was present to heal/for healing", while others will read: "And the power of the Lord was with him (...
user4762's user avatar
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0 votes
2 answers
152 views

Lord's Prayer: Thy will be done. Sequence, grammatical, and theological considerations

Typically one finds in English renditions: Thy will be done on Earth as it is in Heaven. (Matthew 6:10 KJV) But a more rigorous translation which also follows the Greek word order: Let come the ...
user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
253 views

Eph 5:5 and Sharps' Rule

Eph 5:5 contains the final phrase which says: τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ Θεοῦ = the kingdom of Christ and God Is this a valid example of Sharps's rule, or what Wallace calls the "TSKS" ...
Dottard's user avatar
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4 votes
4 answers
951 views

Buried with Him by/in baptism - Romans 6:4 and Colossians 2:12

Romans 6:4 (ESV), 4 We were buried therefore with him by baptism into death, in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life. ...
The Votive Soul's user avatar
6 votes
4 answers
326 views

The meaning of the word "in" in Romans 5:3

Romans 5:3 challenges us to "rejoice in our sufferings". But the word "in" has (at least) two meanings in English. It could mean "rejoice during our sufferings" or "...
Kidburla's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
95 views

Rev. 17:14b - In the context, are "those with him," called (by God, inviter) , and chosen and faithful (invitees), or called and chosen, and faithful?

Text:Rev. 17:14b (ESV): "...and those with him are called and chosen and faithful.”
Sam's user avatar
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4 votes
5 answers
351 views

Uniquely divine begotten/born one

After reading a lot about John 1:18 lately I wondered if the verse could be translated/understood as: God no one has ever seen; the uniquely divine begotten/born one. I thought this way it could fit ...
Noah's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
900 views

Does Aorist Subjunctive "might make known" in Romans 9:23 refer to the past?

I have read answers to the question posed on this site "How should "gnorise" be translated in Romans 9:23?" I would appreciate a little more insight into this Aorist Subjunctive ...
andrew g's user avatar
6 votes
7 answers
2k views

The ‘he’ in 2 Thessalonians 2:7

2:7  τὸ γὰρ μυστήριον ἤδη ἐνεργεῖται τῆς ἀνομίας· μόνον ὁ κατέχων ἄρτι ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται 2 THESSALONIANS 2:7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so ...
Dave's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
2k views

John 1:18 can monogenes theos refer to God? [duplicate]

Apparently there are several variations of the verse from John 1:18, but the main difference between the different renderings is the μονογενὴς θεός (monogenes theos, "the only God") versus ὁ ...
user4762's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
388 views

Ephesians 4:11 - does the Greek in this verse support a translation that says "he gave some to be..." Why 'to be'?

I want to know if the phrase "to be" can be traced back to an aspect of the verb "gave" because the words "to be" do not seem to be in the original text as words, so ...
Tim Catchim's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
72 views

Is this translation of John 19:32–34 grammatically possible?

Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him. But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs: But one ...
Ray Butterworth's user avatar
4 votes
3 answers
89 views

Can Song 7:6 be interpreted "How beautiful you are, and how delightful you are with love in its pleasures"?

Song of Songs 7:6 reads: מַה יָּפִית וּמַה נָּעַמְתְּ אַהֲבָה בַּתַּעֲנוּגִים All translations that I've seen interpret the word אַהֲבָה (love) here as a vocative expression (referring either to the ...
Julian Newman's user avatar
6 votes
3 answers
727 views

What is the best translation of the participles in the Great Commission, Matt. 28:19-20?

All the verbs in the Great Commission are participles except for μαθητεύσατε ("make disciples). For example, πορευθέντες (going) is often translated as an imperative although it is a participle. ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote
2 answers
73 views

Why do some translations change the order of events in Joel 1:18

In the NASB95, Joel 2:18 is translated as Then the Lord will be zealous for His land And will have pity on His people. Here the NASB refers to the Lord becoming zealous/jealous and that the Lord ...
WnGatRC456's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
296 views

What is the difference between arcing, phrasing and diagramming?

I am trying to improve my exegesis of biblical text and am attempting to get better with hermeneutical methods as they are focussed on understanding the meaning of the text in the context of the ...
user7289's user avatar
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6 votes
2 answers
486 views

Why in Matthew 22:8-9 does "wedding feast/ho gamos" change to "wedding feast/tous gamous"?

Matthew 22:8-9 8 Then he said to his servants, "The wedding feast [ho gamos] is ready, but those invited were not worthy. 9 Go therefore to the main roads and invite to the wedding feast [tous ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
156 views

Why does the KJV use (singular) "cometh" as the verb for (plural) "distress and anguish" in Proverbs 1:27?

Here is the phrase in question: When distress and anguish cometh upon you.–Proverbs 1:27c KJV If I'm not mistaken, "cometh" is a singular form of the verb, equivalent to our modern-day ...
user2626868's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
298 views

Is it grammatically possible to translate σαββάτω as Sunday or week?

Regarding Matthew 28:1, transcribed below ipsis litteris: ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαρία θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον I'm looking for an answer that ...
David Costa's user avatar
3 votes
3 answers
195 views

Why does the Septuagint translated Psalm 99:1 with the optative?

Why did the writers of the Septuagint (LXX) choose the particular word for wrath and use the optative mood for that word (ὀργιζέσθωσαν) normally translated "angry/rage/wrath" in Psalm 99:1 - ...
ed huff's user avatar
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4 votes
3 answers
659 views

More cunning? Was the serpent really more cunning?

The direct translation of Gen 3:1 is that the serpent was cunning out of the living of the field. The word for 'beast' in our English Bibles is the Hebrew word for 'living'. The word for 'more' is ...
Lisa Cremer's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
100 views

Pneumatology in Ephesians--what spirit enables us to know whom?

Ephesians 1:17: That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: (KJV) I keep asking that the God of our ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
321 views

Christology in Ephesians--what is meant by "the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory"?

Ephesians 1:17: That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: (KJV) I keep asking that the God of our ...
Hold To The Rod's user avatar
7 votes
1 answer
211 views

1 Peter 3:15 - Collective Plurals or Distributive Plurals?

But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear: [1 Peter 3:15 KJV] In 1 Peter ...
mdavidjohnson's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
49 views

Should the "angel of the abyss" be capitalized? [duplicate]

I am discussing the doctrine of the Jehovah's Witnesses concerning the identity of Abaddon in Revelation 9:11. The names of persons (e.g. Matthew, Mark, and Luke) along with words that are part of ...
Tyconius's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
121 views

Should the "angel of the abyss" be capitalized?

I am discussing the doctrine of the Jehovah's Witnesses concerning the identity of Abaddon in Revelation 9:11. The names of persons (e.g. Matthew, Mark, and Luke) along with words that are part of ...
Tyconius's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
91 views

Could Acts 12:22 be translated "of God" instead of "of a god"?

Acts 12:22 is usually translated something like "And they began to shout, “This is the voice of a god, not a man!”" Can the word translated 'of a god' (Θεοῦ, theou) instead be translated ...
Only True God's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
587 views

Is a translation of John 1:10 with 'it' instead of 'he' and 'him' grammatically problematic?

John 1:10 is usually translated using 'he' and 'him', for example "He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him." (Berean Study Bible) ...
Only True God's user avatar
7 votes
9 answers
2k views

Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?

John 10:33 is typically translated as something like "“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”"...
Only True God's user avatar

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