Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

Filter by
Sorted by
Tagged with
-1
votes
1answer
104 views

Can you give the Greek Word ekklēsia a masculine ending? [closed]

I know that the Greek word translated as church (in the Bible) is a feminine noun. But, is it possible to give ecclesia a masculine ending - making it a masculine noun? Thank you.
4
votes
1answer
78 views

What is the meaning of “And who is their father?” in 1 Samuel 10:12?

1 Samuel 10:9 As Saul turned to leave Samuel, God changed Saul’s heart, and all these signs were fulfilled that day. 10When he and his servant arrived at Gibeah, a procession of prophets met him; the ...
4
votes
1answer
88 views

Is there a first person verb with a plural subject in Hebrew?

I am aware of singular verbs with plural subjects in the third person, masculine, singular. Such as Exodus 4:29, but I am wondering if there is a 1cs that has a plural subject? Feel free to add or ...
6
votes
3answers
1k views

What is the justification for English translations capitalizing “Word” in John 1:1?

What is the justification for English translations capitalizing “Word” in John 1:1? ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. New International Version In the beginning ...
2
votes
4answers
244 views

What does "anasteso" mean in John 6:39?

"And this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise [anasteso] it up on the last day" ESV. John 6:39 says "raise" it on the ...
1
vote
2answers
85 views

What does, "let" him come, mean in John 7:37?

Jesus stood up and cried out, "If anyone thirsts, let him come to me and drink". ESV How "let" is possibly used: I will let you use my car-permission-I give the thirsty person ...
1
vote
1answer
30 views

Luke 12:1 Vulgate Text: "adtendite a fermento Pharisaeorum quae est hypocrisis"

This might not be the right forum to ask, but I couldn't think of a better one. If it is deemed unacceptable, I apologize in advance. I was reading Luke the other day, and inspired by the curiosity to ...
3
votes
2answers
101 views

Why does the King James Bible appear to not agree with some other translations with regard to "you" in Romans 6:17?

that form of doctrine which was delivered "you". KJV KJV. The form of doctrine was delivered. New American Standard Bible. "you were committed". Christian Standard Bible. "...
3
votes
4answers
259 views

Can the Ten Commandments be interpreted as declarative?

There is a variation in how John 14:15 is translated: "If you love me, you will keep my commandments." ESV “If you love Me, you will keep My commandments." NASB “If you love me, keep ...
5
votes
2answers
164 views

Psalm 49:7(NASB) translation seems to say "No human being" can redeem his brother but Psalm 49:7(KJV) refers to those with earthly riches

Psalm 49:5-9 (NASB) 5 Why should I fear in days of adversity, When the iniquity of my [b]foes surrounds me, 6 Even those who trust in their wealth And boast in the abundance of their riches? 7 No ...
3
votes
1answer
100 views

Exodus 3:17 and Judges 2:1 - the Validity of the Vav-Conversive

In Exodus 3:17, we find the phrase אַעֲלֶה אֶתְכֶם (aʿaleh etkhem). The word אַעֲלֶה is a verb conjugated from the verb עָלָה in the imperfect aspect, as indicated by the prefixed א. Reviewing the ...
5
votes
2answers
717 views

Mark 5:34 Daughter, your [σου] faith has healed you. Why is the genitive case used?

Luke 8:30 Jesus asked him, "What is your name?" your σοι (soi) Personal / Possessive Pronoun - Dative 2nd Person Singular Strong's Greek 4771: You. The person pronoun of the second person ...
6
votes
1answer
224 views

Is εἰμί (and thus ἦν) always a stative verb? Or, is ἦν a substantive verb in John 1:1a (ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος)?

This question is based on a comment on this post to this question. In the comment, it was denied that the verb ἦν in John 1:1a (viz., ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος) is functioning as a substantive verb. It was ...
0
votes
2answers
87 views

Does Wallace's chart identify “the archangel” as a monadic noun at Jude 9:9 from the text? If not, how does the grammar of the text prove otherwise?

Does Wallace's chart identify “the archangel” as a monadic noun at Jude 9:9 from the text of scripture? If not, how does the grammar of the text prove otherwise? At Jude 9:9 we find “Michael the ...
3
votes
3answers
103 views

Who is, or are the correct referent(s) of the pronouns in John 1:3-4?

The Fourth Gospel begins: 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 This One was in the beginning with God. 3 All things came-into-being through Him, ...
1
vote
2answers
73 views

Does ἄγγελος κυρίου in the NT (e.g. Acts 12:7) refer to the angel of the LORD in the OT?

Does ἄγγελος κυρίου in the NT (e.g. Acts 12:7) refer to the angel of the LORD in the OT? An example of Apollonius Corollary. is ἄγγελος κυρίου (angel of the Lord) at Acts 12:7. Wallace promotes the ...
3
votes
2answers
525 views

Genesis 5:2, grammatically, how does a plural pronoun refer to a singular noun?

Genesis 5:2 (DRB): He created them male and female; and blessed them: and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created. How does the plural pronoun refer to singular noun (called ...
2
votes
3answers
246 views

What does the article signify in the Greek translation of Genesis 1:1?

The beginning of the Bible states: In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth. (Genesis 1:1 ESV) בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹהִים אֵת הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֵת הָאָֽרֶץ In the beginning God made the ...
-5
votes
2answers
144 views

Is the article at Titus 2:13 anaphoric? If not, what grammatical reasons deny it is?

Is the article at Titus 2:13 anaphoric? If not, what grammatical reasons deny it is? Note: Keep in mind that Wallace says "Most individualizing articles will be anaphoric" [a] Also ...
1
vote
2answers
161 views

Is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:8? If not, what grammatical reason prevents it?

Is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:8? If not, what grammatical reason prevents it? Note: Keep in mind and address that Wallace says "Most individualizing ...
0
votes
2answers
212 views

Since at Galatians 1:1 Father is appositional to θεός but Son is never in the NT, how does this make them θεός differently?

Since at Galatians 1:1 "Father" is appositional to θεός but "Son" is never in the NT, how does this make them θεός differently? Daniel Wallace says: it would be wrong to say &...
-4
votes
1answer
74 views

Are the articles at Ro 9:6,8 ultimately anaphoric to 9:5/1:4? If not, what are the grammatical reasons they are not?

Are the articles at Ro 9:6,8 ultimately anaphoric to 9:5/1:4? If not, what are the grammatical reasons they are not?
4
votes
2answers
144 views

In Acts 13:48 -" τεταγμένοι" (appointed- YTL), What the Luke's narration implies to, "middle" or "passive "voice?

Apparently, Luke simply narrates the event describing how "people throng" to Paul and Barnabas to hear the message, and with conscious volition "they" responded. Therefore, the "middle voice" would ...
-4
votes
2answers
108 views

Is the article at 2 Thessalonians 1:12 anaphoric? If not, what grammatical reasons deny it is?

Is the article at 2 Thessalonians 1:12 anaphoric? If not, what grammatical reasons deny it?
7
votes
6answers
409 views

In Hebrews 1:8-9: Is ὁ θεός nominative or vocative?

In Hebrews 1:8-9, ὁ θεός appears in the nominative spelling in both verses. The question is this; should ὁ θεός be treated as a nominative or more as a vocative of address as it is every other place ...
3
votes
2answers
51 views

In Song 2:17 and 4:6, why is it normally assumed that "until the day breathe and the shadows flee" moderates the subsequent, not preceding, clause?

Song of Songs 2:16-17 (without punctuation) reads: דּוֹדִי לִי וַאֲנִי לוֹ הָרֹעֶה בַּשּׁוֹשַׁנִּים עַד שֶׁיָּפוּחַ הַיּוֹם וְנָסוּ הַצְּלָלִים סֹב דְּמֵה-לְךָ דוֹדִי לִצְבִי אוֹ לְעֹפֶר הָאַיָּלִים ...
3
votes
1answer
95 views

Assuming Paul intended Titus 2:13 to mean two different referents, what advantage does his choice of words have over others which are unambiguous?

Paul wrote to Titus to exhort him to sound teaching (or doctrine). He said this 5 times in the first 26 verses (1:9, 13-14, 2:1, 7, 10). Then he follows with a statement whose meaning is disputed: ...
-1
votes
5answers
186 views

Since BDAG says "και" suggests a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 that justifies that “our Great God” is the Father and not Jesus, is και adjunctive?

Since BDAG says "και" suggests a semantic aspect at Titus 2:13 that justifies that “our Great God” is the Father and not Jesus, is και adjunctive?
2
votes
4answers
165 views

How does the fact that the Father is the “only true God” (Θεός) at J 17:3 in a convertible proposition affect the sense in which Jesus is θεός?

How does the fact that the Father is the “only true God” (Θεός) at J 17:3 in a convertible proposition affect the sense in which Jesus is θεός?
3
votes
1answer
225 views

Genesis 22:8, 9: is there a difference in the meaning due to the use of the indefinite article ‘a’ and the definite article ‘the’?

Genesis 22:8, 9 ..., God will provide himself ‘a’ lamb for a burnt offering; ... (KJV) ..., God will provide for Himself ‘the’ lamb for a burnt offering, ... (The Interlinear Bible Hebrew-Greek-...
0
votes
4answers
57 views

Why did H.S direct John to use the word for "to happen" in Revelation 16:17 instead off the normal word for "to complete"?

Revelation 16:17 Then the seventh poured out his bowl into the air, and a loud voice came out of the temple from the throne, saying, “It is done! ”--that is, "γέγονεν." What catches my eye here is ...
2
votes
2answers
116 views

What does it mean that the Greek middle voice is used at Luke 4:3 to command the stone to become bread?

The devil said to him, "If you are the Son of God, tell this stone to become bread (Luke 4:3, NIV) (NA28) εἶπεν δὲ αὐτῷ ὁ διάβολος· εἰ υἱὸς εἶ τοῦ θεοῦ, εἰπὲ ⸂τῷ λίθῳ τούτῳ ἵνα γένηται [a] ἄρτος⸃ I ...
1
vote
1answer
52 views

How should δὲ in Luke 24:44 be translated?

The Greek text of Luke 24:44 states: Εἶπεν δὲ πρὸς αὐτούς Οὗτοι οἱ λόγοι μου οὓς ἐλάλησα πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἔτι ὢν σὺν ὑμῖν, ὅτι δεῖ πληρωθῆναι πάντα τὰ γεγραμμένα ἐν τῷ νόμῳ Μωϋσέως καὶ τοῖς προφήταις ...
4
votes
2answers
204 views

Owlam in Gen:6:4

I have looked at the Stack Exchange comments on Genesis 6:4 but have not found the following opinion expressed. Could someone schooled in Hebrew please comment on my use of the word "Owlam" (Strong's ...
4
votes
2answers
978 views

Who is the "possessor of heaven and earth" in Genesis 14:19. Abraham or God?

Who is the "possessor of heaven and earth" in Genesis 14:19 And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth: 20 and blessed be the most high ...
-4
votes
2answers
158 views

Does Martin Smart’s Rule indicate that “Lord” and “God” have two referents at John 20:28?

In October 2000, "Smart's Rule," started as a parody of Sharp's Rule, was proposed on the B-GREEK list list by Martin Smart. The rule states: In the proper native[a] Koine Greek of the ...
2
votes
4answers
753 views

What is the accurate translation of "οὗτος" in John 1:2?

In John 1:2, what is the accurate translation of "οὗτος"? John 1:2 (DRB): The same was in the beginning with God. John 1:2 (GNT): oὗτος ἦν ἐν ἀρχῇ πρὸς τὸν Θεόν. I looked about ...
2
votes
3answers
426 views

Since the Word received life in John 1:3-4 per the UBS Greek text, can the prologue also support the Word was eternal?

The problem: The grammar of John 1:1-4, especially in our critical editions of the Greek text give substantial reason to view the Word as having received his very life in the beginning. However ...
-8
votes
5answers
372 views

What does the "beginning of creation” at Rev 3:14 mean using a Biblical Hermeneutic?

In 1979 the 2nd edition Bauer-Arndt-Gingrich-Danker Greek lexicon (BAGD) said of “the beginning of creation” used of Christ at Rev 3:14 that “the mng. beginning=‘first created’ is linguistically ...
4
votes
4answers
282 views

Does Paul's use of Greek represent the Son as Creator or Maker?

When the role of the Son is spoken of by Paul in Creation it is always as the intermediate agent (δια) or instrument (εν) used by God and not as source as in Creator Ex Nihilo. BDAG on the agency of ...
3
votes
2answers
288 views

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical English. To take "I am" as a title of God is equivalent to "Before Abraham ...
2
votes
3answers
209 views

Is the article in 2 Peter 1:2 (του θεου) anaphoric to θεός in 1:1? If not, what grammar denies it?

Is the article in 2 Peter 1:2 (του θεου) anaphoric to θεός in 1:1? If not, what grammar denies it? Note: Keep in mind and address that Wallace says "Most individualizing articles will be ...
4
votes
5answers
417 views

Jehovah in the New Testament

Among the reasons the Watchtower society gives for inserting the name Jehovah in the New Testament is the following: "In Greek, is the definite article missing from before Kyʹri·os (Lord), where it ...
0
votes
1answer
136 views

Did Jesus ask once or repeatedly? Mark 5:8

The text translated says something to the effect “For he was saying to him, "Come out of the man, you unclean spirit!"” ‭‭Mark‬ ‭5:8‬ ‭ Which would cause one to assume Jesus said it once only ...
2
votes
1answer
80 views

Psalm 104:30 grammar

Does the grammar in Psalm 104:30 support what is to come, as opposed to what has happened in the past? From my extremely basic understanding it supports what is to come, but I want to be sure. 30 ...
5
votes
2answers
110 views

A male child is born to us

Is there a difference, even very small, in the meaning of: A male child is born to us. vs A male child has been born to us. The "is born" is rather unusual in English. What is the best ...
1
vote
1answer
44 views

Rom 8:31 ?..Who can be against us? Is this a valid grammatical adjustment?

Rom 8:31 (NKJV)  What then shall we say to these things? If God is for us, who can be against us? Does the Greek text allow for this translation? What then shall we say to these things if God is for ...
1
vote
3answers
362 views

Could Matthew 28:18-19 be translated in the Koine Greek to be an exhortation and not a commandment as some may think?

"Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,” Could this mean, ”while you are going out and about or while you are on ...
3
votes
2answers
133 views

In the Shema, how should we understand "with all your strength" when the Hebrew word מְאֹ֑ד is rarely used this way?

In Deuteronomy 6:5, the Hebrew text reads "and with all your might"(ESV). Most English translations take this as "strength" or "might." The LXX uses a common word for power/strength/might and Mark's ...
3
votes
1answer
58 views

How should the 2fs form of amar be understood in Psalm 16:2

Psalm 16:2 reads: אָמַרְתְּ לַיהוָה אֲדֹנָי אָתָּה טוֹבָתִי בַּל-עָלֶיךָ אָמַרְתְּ is 2fs in form. I was curious about how to understand this. Looking around, most translations seem to understand ...

1
2
3 4 5
9