Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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2answers
84 views

Luke 5:17 where is the power?

Looking at Luke 5:17 some of the translations will read: "And the power of the Lord was present to heal/for healing", while others will read: "And the power of the Lord was with him (...
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2answers
59 views

Lord's Prayer: Thy will be done. Sequence, grammatical, and theological considerations

Typically one finds in English renditions: Thy will be done on Earth as it is in Heaven. (Matthew 6:10 KJV) But a more rigorous translation which also follows the Greek word order: Let come the ...
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2answers
157 views

Eph 5:5 and Sharps' Rule

Eph 5:5 contains the final phrase which says: τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ Θεοῦ = the kingdom of Christ and God Is this a valid example of Sharps's rule, or what Wallace calls the "TSKS" ...
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3answers
221 views

Buried with Him by/in baptism - Romans 6:4 and Colossians 2:12

Romans 6:4 (ESV), 4 We were buried therefore with him by baptism into death, in order that, just as Christ was raised from the dead by the glory of the Father, we too might walk in newness of life. ...
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4answers
157 views

The meaning of the word "in" in Romans 5:3

Romans 5:3 challenges us to "rejoice in our sufferings". But the word "in" has (at least) two meanings in English. It could mean "rejoice during our sufferings" or "...
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2answers
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Rev. 17:14b - In the context, are "those with him," called (by God, inviter) , and chosen and faithful (invitees), or called and chosen, and faithful?

Text:Rev. 17:14b (ESV): "...and those with him are called and chosen and faithful.”
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5answers
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Uniquely divine begotten/born one

After reading a lot about John 1:18 lately I wondered if the verse could be translated/understood as: God no one has ever seen; the uniquely divine begotten/born one. I thought this way it could fit ...
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2answers
137 views

Does Aorist Subjunctive "might make known" in Romans 9:23 refer to the past?

I have read answers to the question posed on this site "How should "gnorise" be translated in Romans 9:23?" I would appreciate a little more insight into this Aorist Subjunctive ...
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2answers
108 views

The ‘he’ in 2 Thessalonians 2:7

2:7  τὸ γὰρ μυστήριον ἤδη ἐνεργεῖται τῆς ἀνομίας· μόνον ὁ κατέχων ἄρτι ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται 2 THESSALONIANS 2:7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so ...
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4answers
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John 1:18 can monogenes theos refer to God? [duplicate]

Apparently there are several variations of the verse from John 1:18, but the main difference between the different renderings is the μονογενὴς θεός (monogenes theos, "the only God") versus ὁ ...
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1answer
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(Numbers 31:18), why do translators add "for yourselves"?

Why do English translations of Numbers 31:18 add "for yourselves"? English: "But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves." ...
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2answers
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Is this translation of John 19:32–34 grammatically possible?

Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him. But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs: But one ...
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Can Song 7:6 be interpreted "How beautiful you are, and how delightful you are with love in its pleasures"?

Song of Songs 7:6 reads: מַה יָּפִית וּמַה נָּעַמְתְּ אַהֲבָה בַּתַּעֲנוּגִים All translations that I've seen interpret the word אַהֲבָה (love) here as a vocative expression (referring either to the ...
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2answers
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What is the best translation of the participles in the Great Commission, Matt. 28:19-20?

All the verbs in the Great Commission are participles except for μαθητεύσατε ("make disciples). For example, πορευθέντες (going) is often translated as an imperative although it is a participle. ...
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2answers
52 views

Why do some translations change the order of events in Joel 1:18

In the NASB95, Joel 2:18 is translated as Then the Lord will be zealous for His land And will have pity on His people. Here the NASB refers to the Lord becoming zealous/jealous and that the Lord ...
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125 views

What is the difference between arcing, phrasing and diagramming?

I am trying to improve my exegesis of biblical text and am attempting to get better with hermeneutical methods as they are focussed on understanding the meaning of the text in the context of the ...
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361 views

Why in Matthew 22:8-9 does "wedding feast/ho gamos" change to "wedding feast/tous gamous"?

Matthew 22:8-9 8 Then he said to his servants, "The wedding feast [ho gamos] is ready, but those invited were not worthy. 9 Go therefore to the main roads and invite to the wedding feast [tous ...
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3answers
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Why does the KJV use (singular) "cometh" as the verb for (plural) "distress and anguish" in Proverbs 1:27?

Here is the phrase in question: When distress and anguish cometh upon you.–Proverbs 1:27c KJV If I'm not mistaken, "cometh" is a singular form of the verb, equivalent to our modern-day ...
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Is it grammatically possible to translate σαββάτω as Sunday or week?

Regarding Matthew 28:1, transcribed below ipsis litteris: ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαρία θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον I'm looking for an answer that ...
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Why does the Septuagint translated Psalm 99:1 with the optative?

Why did the writers of the Septuagint (LXX) choose the particular word for wrath and use the optative mood for that word (ὀργιζέσθωσαν) normally translated "angry/rage/wrath" in Psalm 99:1 - ...
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More cunning? Was the serpent really more cunning?

The direct translation of Gen 3:1 is that the serpent was cunning out of the living of the field. The word for 'beast' in our English Bibles is the Hebrew word for 'living'. The word for 'more' is ...
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Pneumatology in Ephesians--what spirit enables us to know whom?

Ephesians 1:17: That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: (KJV) I keep asking that the God of our ...
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2answers
81 views

Christology in Ephesians--what is meant by "the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory"?

Ephesians 1:17: That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: (KJV) I keep asking that the God of our ...
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1answer
43 views

1 Peter 3:15 - Collective Plurals or Distributive Plurals?

But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear: [1 Peter 3:15 KJV] In 1 Peter ...
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Should the "angel of the abyss" be capitalized? [duplicate]

I am discussing the doctrine of the Jehovah's Witnesses concerning the identity of Abaddon in Revelation 9:11. The names of persons (e.g. Matthew, Mark, and Luke) along with words that are part of ...
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2answers
51 views

Should the "angel of the abyss" be capitalized?

I am discussing the doctrine of the Jehovah's Witnesses concerning the identity of Abaddon in Revelation 9:11. The names of persons (e.g. Matthew, Mark, and Luke) along with words that are part of ...
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0answers
33 views

Could Acts 12:22 be translated "of God" instead of "of a god"?

Acts 12:22 is usually translated something like "And they began to shout, “This is the voice of a god, not a man!”" Can the word translated 'of a god' (Θεοῦ, theou) instead be translated ...
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2answers
560 views

Is a translation of John 1:10 with 'it' instead of 'he' and 'him' grammatically problematic?

John 1:10 is usually translated using 'he' and 'him', for example "He was in the world, and though the world was made through Him, the world did not recognize Him." (Berean Study Bible) ...
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8answers
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Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?

John 10:33 is typically translated as something like "“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”"...
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2answers
75 views

Deuteronomy 34:10

Deut 34:10 - Since that time no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, whom the LORD knew face to face (NASB) Is the Hebrew in Deuteronomy 34:10 future tense? Meaning Jesus can’t be the prophet like ...
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2answers
214 views

Psalm 17:2 Why the Hebrew word for eyes is singular?

https://biblehub.com/psalms/17-2.htm Psalm 17:2 Let my vindication come from you; may your eyes see what is right. may Your eyes עֵ֝ינֶ֗יךָ (‘ê·ne·ḵā) Noun - cdc | second person masculine singular ...
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2answers
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Matt 25:40. Can Jesus' brethren be understood to be the righteous of verse 37?

I am looking for an answer based on the structure of the original Greek. I observe in my reading of Matthew 25:31-46 that the term " my brethren " occurs only in the first passage of Jesus' ...
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2answers
165 views

Anarthrous "Son of God" in Mark 1:1 and 15:39

Mark 1:1 (ESV), 1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God... Mark 15:39 (ESV), 39 And when the centurion, who stood facing him, saw that in this way he breathed his last, he said, “...
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1answer
74 views

In Leviticus 6:2 LXX, what is the meaning of κοινωνίας?

The NLT version of Leviticus 6:2, based on the Hebrew, has this: [Lev 6:2 NLT] (2) "Suppose one of you sins against your associate and is unfaithful to the LORD. Suppose you cheat in a deal ...
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1answer
81 views

In Philippians 1:5, what does Paul mean by κοινωνίᾳ?

[Phl 1:5 YLT] (5) for your contribution to the good news from the first day till now, [Phl 1:5 NIV] (5) because of your partnership in the gospel from the first day until now, [Phl 1:5 NKJV] (5) for ...
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101 views

μέν ... δέ with trailing καὶ

In English, it is idiomatic to have the word 'and' before the last item in a list, such as "I like coffee, tea, and beer" (with or without the last comma!). In Ephesians 4:11, there is a &...
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1answer
44 views

Present Infinitive Active Verbs in 1 Timothy 5:14

1 Timothy 5:14 (ESV), So I would have younger widows marry, bear children, manage their households, and give the adversary no occasion for slander. The four emboldened phrases above, in Greek, are ...
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3answers
102 views

Present Infinitive Active Verbs in 1 Timothy 5:14

1 Timothy 5:14 (ESV), So I would have younger widows marry, bear children, manage their households, and give the adversary no occasion for slander. The four emboldened phrases above, in Greek, are ...
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3answers
127 views

In Revelation 7:11, who falls down and worships God?

Revelation 7:11 (CSB) All the angels stood around the throne, and along with the elders and the four living creatures they fell facedown before the throne and worshiped God, Revelation 7:11 (NIV) All ...
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2answers
88 views

The spirit but which spirit? "which" or "who/whom"?

Unlike English, other languages like Greek, Hebrews have something called "gender". That is, some nouns are masculine, others are feminine, and still, others are neuter. Something like we ...
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1answer
105 views

In Habakkuk 2:2-3, is he saying that the the reading and running occur in the last days?

Habakkuk 2:2 seems to be saying that Habakkuk is to write a call to action, and it sounds like it is to be written without obscurity so the reader will immediately charge off. However, in verse 3 it ...
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2answers
83 views

Word order in subject-predicate nominative constructions

Hi I am studying the use of the nominative and especially looking at the subject-predicate nominative constructions. I read the following in Matt 6:22: Matthew 6:22 (UBS5): Ὁ λύχνος τοῦ σώματός ἐστιν ...
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3answers
159 views

Is Aramaic "bar enos," "son of man," identifiable as a definite or indefinite form? [closed]

In the written NT, "the son of man" is "ο γιος του ανθρώπου," with a definite article "ο." This would presumably be a Greek translation of an Aramaic phrase used during ...
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1answer
27 views

Exodus 40 difference between "thou" and "he", and the official position of Moses

My questions are in Exodus 40, from verses 2-15 the word "thou" is used and from verses 19-30 the word "he" is used is there a important distinction? Also, Moses seems to be ...
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2answers
93 views

In 1 Corinthians 15:26, what is the significance of καταργεῖται ("abolish") being a present indicative instead of a future?

[1Co 15:26 NASB] (26) The last enemy that will be abolished is death. [1Co 15:26 MGNT] (26) ἔσχατος ἐχθρὸς καταργεῖται ὁ θάνατος The context of 1 Corinthians 15 is a little difficult to sort out, ...
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1answer
84 views

In Acts 24:15, how should μέλλειν ἔσεσθαι be rendered?

It is generally translated as "going to be", with Young's Literal Translation being the Minority Report: https://biblehub.com/acts/24-15.htm https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/...
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1answer
45 views

What is the reason for the use of different voices for the perfect in Mark 1:15?

Hi in the following verse: Mark 1:15 (UBS5): Πεπλήρωται ὁ καιρὸς καὶ ἤγγικεν ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ· μετανοεῖτε καὶ πιστεύετε ἐν τῷ εὐαγγελίῳ. ... has been fulfilled the time and has drawn near the ...
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2answers
207 views

In Matthew 10:25, who is Beelzebub/Beelzeboul?

[Mat 10:25 NASB] (25) "It is enough for the disciple that he become like his teacher, and the slave like his master. If they have called the head of the house Beelzebul, how much more [will they ...
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2answers
51 views

Why is the perfect tense used to describe clothing for Jesus and John?

Quick question - I am learning Greek and trying to read the NT in the same. Why is the perfect tense used when describing Jesus’ (Rev 1) and John the Baptist’s clothes (Mark 1)? Specifically I am ...
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828 views

Why does Genesis 3 use male pronouns for Eve?

I came across some interesting observations of Genesis 3 recently: Genesis 3:12, "And the adam said , 'the woman whom you gave with me, HE gave [3fs] to me from the tree and I ate'" Genesis ...

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