Questions tagged [grammar]

Understanding the grammar of the source texts; this tag should be accompanied by the appropriate language tag.

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5
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4answers
116 views

The meaning of the word "in" in Romans 5:3

Romans 5:3 challenges us to "rejoice in our sufferings". But the word "in" has (at least) two meanings in English. It could mean "rejoice during our sufferings" or "...
3
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2answers
71 views

Deuteronomy 34:10

Deut 34:10 - Since that time no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, whom the LORD knew face to face (NASB) Is the Hebrew in Deuteronomy 34:10 future tense? Meaning Jesus can’t be the prophet like ...
4
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1answer
78 views

In Philippians 1:5, what does Paul mean by κοινωνίᾳ?

[Phl 1:5 YLT] (5) for your contribution to the good news from the first day till now, [Phl 1:5 NIV] (5) because of your partnership in the gospel from the first day until now, [Phl 1:5 NKJV] (5) for ...
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3answers
129 views

In Psalm 40:12: is he surrounded by "evils" or by "iniquities"?

Psalm 40:12 (KJV) " For innumerable evils have compassed me about: mine iniquities have taken hold upon me, so that I am not able to look up; they are more than the hairs of mine head: therefore ...
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4answers
123 views

In what sense is the word ἀνακρίνει used in 1 Corinthians 2:15?

NA 28 1 Corinthians 2:15 15ὁ δὲ πνευματικὸς ἀνακρίνει [τὰ] πάντα, αὐτὸς δὲ ὑπ’ οὐδενὸς ἀνακρίνεται. 1 Corinthians 2:15 KJV 15 But he that is spiritual judgeth all things, yet he himself is ...
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2answers
204 views

Owlam in Gen:6:4

I have looked at the Stack Exchange comments on Genesis 6:4 but have not found the following opinion expressed. Could someone schooled in Hebrew please comment on my use of the word "Owlam" (Strong's ...
4
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2answers
144 views

In Acts 13:48 -" τεταγμένοι" (appointed- YTL), What the Luke's narration implies to, "middle" or "passive "voice?

Apparently, Luke simply narrates the event describing how "people throng" to Paul and Barnabas to hear the message, and with conscious volition "they" responded. Therefore, the "middle voice" would ...
4
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2answers
81 views

Emphasis in Isaiah 50:11

Does the phrase here translated - "this you shall have of mine hand" - refer to the the previous portion of the verse, or does it refer to the latter portion of the verse? Is 50:11Behold, ...
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2answers
58 views

Can Song 7:6 be interpreted "How beautiful you are, and how delightful you are with love in its pleasures"?

Song of Songs 7:6 reads: מַה יָּפִית וּמַה נָּעַמְתְּ אַהֲבָה בַּתַּעֲנוּגִים All translations that I've seen interpret the word אַהֲבָה (love) here as a vocative expression (referring either to the ...
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What does it mean that the Greek middle voice is used at Luke 4:3 to command the stone to become bread?

The devil said to him, "If you are the Son of God, tell this stone to become bread (Luke 4:3, NIV) (NA28) εἶπεν δὲ αὐτῷ ὁ διάβολος· εἰ υἱὸς εἶ τοῦ θεοῦ, εἰπὲ ⸂τῷ λίθῳ τούτῳ ἵνα γένηται [a] ἄρτος⸃ I ...
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In Psalm 68:4 and Psalm 135:1 how are contractions formed in Hebrew and how does YHWH become Yah?

Psalm 68:4 expresses the name of God as Yah. This seems obvious related to the name of God as he expounded it to Moses in Exodus 3:14. We also see the two directly connected in passages such as Psalm ...
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1answer
39 views

1 Peter 3:15 - Collective Plurals or Distributive Plurals?

But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts: and be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you with meekness and fear: [1 Peter 3:15 KJV] In 1 Peter ...
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4answers
433 views

Onward to Shinar: From the East or to the East?

Here are the choices...and of course, they are opposites: ESV Genesis 11:2 And as people migrated from the east, they found a plain in the land of Shinar and settled there. NET Genesis 11:2 When the ...
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101 views

μέν ... δέ with trailing καὶ

In English, it is idiomatic to have the word 'and' before the last item in a list, such as "I like coffee, tea, and beer" (with or without the last comma!). In Ephesians 4:11, there is a &...
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1answer
50 views

(Numbers 31:18), why do translators add "for yourselves"?

Why do English translations of Numbers 31:18 add "for yourselves"? English: "But all the women children, that have not known a man by lying with him, keep alive for yourselves." ...
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2answers
118 views

Does Aorist Subjunctive "might make known" in Romans 9:23 refer to the past?

I have read answers to the question posed on this site "How should "gnorise" be translated in Romans 9:23?" I would appreciate a little more insight into this Aorist Subjunctive ...
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5answers
188 views

Uniquely divine begotten/born one

After reading a lot about John 1:18 lately I wondered if the verse could be translated/understood as: God no one has ever seen; the uniquely divine begotten/born one. I thought this way it could fit ...
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2answers
80 views

The ‘he’ in 2 Thessalonians 2:7

2:7  τὸ γὰρ μυστήριον ἤδη ἐνεργεῖται τῆς ἀνομίας· μόνον ὁ κατέχων ἄρτι ἕως ἐκ μέσου γένηται 2 THESSALONIANS 2:7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so ...
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4answers
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John 1:18 can monogenes theos refer to God? [duplicate]

Apparently there are several variations of the verse from John 1:18, but the main difference between the different renderings is the μονογενὴς θεός (monogenes theos, "the only God") versus ὁ ...
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1answer
79 views

In Acts 24:15, how should μέλλειν ἔσεσθαι be rendered?

It is generally translated as "going to be", with Young's Literal Translation being the Minority Report: https://biblehub.com/acts/24-15.htm https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/nwt/books/...
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2answers
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Who is the "possessor of heaven and earth" in Genesis 14:19. Abraham or God?

Who is the "possessor of heaven and earth" in Genesis 14:19 And he blessed him, and said, Blessed be Abram of the most high God, possessor of heaven and earth: 20 and blessed be the most high ...
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2answers
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In Isaiah 29:6 should פָּקַד be translated as "visited" or "inspected"?

Can the word translated as "visited" in Isaiah 29:6 be more accurately translated as "inspected" as it is translated in the Youngs Literal Translation?: YLT Isa 29:6  By Jehovah of Hosts thou art ...
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2answers
50 views

Why do some translations change the order of events in Joel 1:18

In the NASB95, Joel 2:18 is translated as Then the Lord will be zealous for His land And will have pity on His people. Here the NASB refers to the Lord becoming zealous/jealous and that the Lord ...
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36 views

Is this translation of John 19:32–34 grammatically possible?

Then came the soldiers, and brake the legs of the first, and of the other which was crucified with him. But when they came to Jesus, and saw that he was dead already, they brake not his legs: But one ...
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128 views

Is "the bread is in effect common" (1 Samuel 21:5) as translated by the NKJV accurate?

The MT reads: וַיַּ֩עַן֩ דָּוִ֨ד אֶת־הַכֹּהֵ֜ן וַיֹּ֣אמֶר ל֗וֹ כִּ֣י אִם־אִשָּׁ֤ה עֲצֻֽרָה־לָ֙נוּ֙ כִּתְמ֣וֹל שִׁלְשֹׁ֔ם בְּצֵאתִ֕י וַיִּהְי֥וּ כְלֵֽי־הַנְּעָרִ֖ים קֹ֑דֶשׁ וְהוּא֙ דֶּ֣רֶךְ חֹ֔ל ...
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3answers
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Why does the KJV use (singular) "cometh" as the verb for (plural) "distress and anguish" in Proverbs 1:27?

Here is the phrase in question: When distress and anguish cometh upon you.–Proverbs 1:27c KJV If I'm not mistaken, "cometh" is a singular form of the verb, equivalent to our modern-day ...
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5answers
633 views

"Be holy as I am holy"; why are the two words for "holy" written differently in Hebrew?

קְדֹשִׁים תִּהְיוּ: כִּי קָדוֹשׁ, אֲנִי ”Be holy for I (God) am holy" This verse in Leviticus 19:2 seems to demand that Israel should sanctify herself to the level of God’s holiness. But in ...
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2answers
97 views

What is the best translation of the participles in the Great Commission, Matt. 28:19-20?

All the verbs in the Great Commission are participles except for μαθητεύσατε ("make disciples). For example, πορευθέντες (going) is often translated as an imperative although it is a participle. ...
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2answers
161 views

Is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:8? If not, what grammatical reason prevents it?

Is the article ο in ο θεός at Hebrews 1:9 anaphoric to θεός at Hebrews 1:8? If not, what grammatical reason prevents it? Note: Keep in mind and address that Wallace says "Most individualizing ...
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0answers
115 views

What is the difference between arcing, phrasing and diagramming?

I am trying to improve my exegesis of biblical text and am attempting to get better with hermeneutical methods as they are focussed on understanding the meaning of the text in the context of the ...
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506 views

How might Matthew 16:22 in the Codex Vaticanus be best translated to reflect the etymology of the text?

While translating Matthew 16 today, I ran across what the NET Bible calls a "highly elliptical expression" in verse 22: καὶ προσλαβόμενος αὐτὸν ὁ Πέτρος ἤρξατο ἐπιτιμᾶν αὐτῷ λέγων· Ἵλεώς ...
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2answers
360 views

Why in Matthew 22:8-9 does "wedding feast/ho gamos" change to "wedding feast/tous gamous"?

Matthew 22:8-9 8 Then he said to his servants, "The wedding feast [ho gamos] is ready, but those invited were not worthy. 9 Go therefore to the main roads and invite to the wedding feast [tous ...
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3answers
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What is "a sprinkling of blood" in 1 Peter 1:2

κατὰ (according to) πρόγνωσιν (foreknowledge) Θεοῦ (of God) Πατρός (Father) ἐν (by) ἁγιασμῷ (a sanctification) Πνεύματος (of spirit) εἰς (into) ὑπακοὴν (obedience) καὶ (and) ῥαντισμὸν (a sprinkling) ...
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2answers
109 views

Is it grammatically possible to translate σαββάτω as Sunday or week?

Regarding Matthew 28:1, transcribed below ipsis litteris: ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων ἦλθεν Μαριὰμ ἡ Μαγδαληνὴ καὶ ἡ ἄλλη Μαρία θεωρῆσαι τὸν τάφον I'm looking for an answer that ...
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3answers
311 views

What does "as" mean in Matthew 6:10?

Matthew 6:10 "Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done in earth, as it is in heaven". KJB Here "as" could be "because", alternatively it could be "in the same way". ...
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3answers
115 views

Why does the Septuagint translated Psalm 99:1 with the optative?

Why did the writers of the Septuagint (LXX) choose the particular word for wrath and use the optative mood for that word (ὀργιζέσθωσαν) normally translated "angry/rage/wrath" in Psalm 99:1 - ...
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4answers
711 views

Word order in 1 Timothy 2:12 (διδάσκειν, didaskein and γυναικὶ, gynaiki)

Are there any interpretive issues regarding word order [emphasis in bold added] in 1 Timothy 2:12? NA28: διδάσκειν δὲ γυναικὶ οὐκ ἐπιτρέπω οὐδὲ αὐθεντεῖν ἀνδρός, ἀλλ᾿ εἶναι ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ, didaskein ...
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3answers
497 views

Hebrews 12:24: subjective or objective genitive?

Does the subjective or objective genitive appear in the following verse? Hebrews 12:24 (NASB) 24 and to Jesus, the mediator of a new covenant, and to the sprinkled blood, which speaks better than ...
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2answers
105 views

What is the significance of ἀγαπάω (I have loved) being aorist in John 15:12?

What is the significance of ἀγαπάω (I have loved) being aorist in John 15:12? Αὕτη ἐστὶν ἡ ἐντολὴ ἡ ἐμή, ἵνα ἀγαπᾶτε ἀλλήλους καθὼς ἠγάπησα ὑμᾶς. (John 15:12, NA27) “This is my commandment, that you ...
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8answers
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Is it grammar or theology that causes translators to typically translate John 10:33 as "declare Yourself to be God" as opposed to "a god"?

John 10:33 is typically translated as something like "“We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.”"...
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3answers
102 views

More cunning? Was the serpent really more cunning?

The direct translation of Gen 3:1 is that the serpent was cunning out of the living of the field. The word for 'beast' in our English Bibles is the Hebrew word for 'living'. The word for 'more' is ...
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5answers
529 views

Does Hebrews 7:12 say that the Law has changed?

μετατιθεμένης (being changed) γὰρ (indeed) τῆς (the) ἱερωσύνης (priesthood) ἐξ (from out) ἀνάγκης (of a necessity) καὶ (and) νόμου (of a law) μετάθεσις (a change) γίνεται (takes place) The KJV says: ...
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3answers
247 views

What does the article signify in the Greek translation of Genesis 1:1?

The beginning of the Bible states: In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth. (Genesis 1:1 ESV) בְּרֵאשִׁית בָּרָא אֱלֹהִים אֵת הַשָּׁמַיִם וְאֵת הָאָֽרֶץ In the beginning God made the ...
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6answers
409 views

In Hebrews 1:8-9: Is ὁ θεός nominative or vocative?

In Hebrews 1:8-9, ὁ θεός appears in the nominative spelling in both verses. The question is this; should ὁ θεός be treated as a nominative or more as a vocative of address as it is every other place ...
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2answers
76 views

Christology in Ephesians--what is meant by "the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory"?

Ephesians 1:17: That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: (KJV) I keep asking that the God of our ...
2
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2answers
54 views

Pneumatology in Ephesians--what spirit enables us to know whom?

Ephesians 1:17: That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him: (KJV) I keep asking that the God of our ...
2
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3answers
503 views

Grammar help please: συνεσταυρωμαι in Gal 2:20

I was looking at Galatians 2:20 - I have been crucified with Christ. (ESV version) And I wondered if there was anything in the Greek grammar that showed if "have been" indicated an action of a ...
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3answers
236 views

How should Luke 2:2 be translated?

Luke 2:2 in the King James Version says, (And this taxing was first made when Cyrenius was governor of Syria.) However, the original Greek text says, αὕτη ἡ ἀπογραφὴ πρώτη ἐγένετο ἡγεμονεύοντος ...
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0answers
49 views

Should the "angel of the abyss" be capitalized? [duplicate]

I am discussing the doctrine of the Jehovah's Witnesses concerning the identity of Abaddon in Revelation 9:11. The names of persons (e.g. Matthew, Mark, and Luke) along with words that are part of ...

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