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Questions tagged [aramaic]

Questions regarding the Aramaic sections of the Tanakh (Hebrew Bible) and the translations known as the Targums.

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Did Jesus teach the Lord's Prayer in poetic verses?

Apropos the BHE question "but" deliver us from evil. Some scholars like Jack Kilmon have attempted a retro-translation of the Lord's Prayer into Aramaic, the language believed to have been ...
Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
48 views

Do any reliable recreations of Jesus' Aramaic sayings exist?

Do any reliable recreations of Jesus' Aramaic sayings exist? As far as I know, the Peshittas are fourth-century translations from Greek, and much of the language seems to have evolved over those ...
Display name's user avatar
2 votes
2 answers
98 views

Peshitta vs Greek Revelation 9:11 variant

Revelation 9 11 Peshitta And there is a King over them, the Angel of The Abyss, whose name in Hebrew is Avadu, and in Aramaic his name is Shara. Revelation 9 11 NIV They had as king over them the ...
Sam's user avatar
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1 answer
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Phonetically, does Ἐλωῒ Ἐλωῒ in Mark 15:34 resemble יְהִ֣י אֹ֑ור in Genesis 1:3?

My spoken dialect is swiftly moving toward having only one vowel (which I'll have you know isn't "woof!" [smile]) So I may be at some disadvantage with Ancient Hebrew. Certainly, once the ...
FelixLXX's user avatar
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13 votes
4 answers
714 views

What is the reason for the difference between Eloi and Eli?

Mark 15:34, And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, “Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?” which is translated, “My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?” Matthew 27:46, And about ...
Jason_'s user avatar
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10 votes
7 answers
3k views

When Jesus read from the Scroll of Isaiah, did he translate it into Aramaic?

What language did Jesus speak when he read Isaiah 61:1,2? Would Aramaic be spoken in the synagogue? Luke 4:16-19 New International Version 16 He went to Nazareth, where he had been brought up, and on ...
Mike McCain's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
152 views

Aramaic Lord's Prayer (Mt. 6:9-15) transcribed into IPA for pronunciation?

I am looking for a transcription of the Aramaic Lord's Prayer (Abun d'Bashmaya, Mt. 6:9-15) into International Phonetic Alphabet (IPA), for aiding correct pronunciation.
Geremia's user avatar
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On what textual basis, according to the Aramaic, would the translators have used the term "gained access" in the NWT at Daniel 7:13?

The phrase is: אָתֵה הֲוָה וְעַד־עַתִּיק יוֹמַיָּא The word in question, as far as I can tell, is: אָתֵה Other translations, of course, say something like "he came to the Ancient of Days," ...
Robert Fairfield's user avatar
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Filo vs agapas in the dialog of Peter with resurrected Jesus, a linguistic detail [duplicate]

In John 21:15-17 the deep meaning of the text is revealed by using different words to express love: filo (like) and agapas (love). I think, Peter was grieved by the meaning of the text about words of ...
porton's user avatar
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2 answers
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What does Rabboni really mean?

I’ve read it said from Albert Pike that Rabboni isn’t Aramaic, but it is derived from the Hebrew “RB BNI”, meaning master builder or master of builders in Hebrew. Is this true? Mark 10:51 And Jesus ...
Bertram's user avatar
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2 answers
137 views

Does the Hebrew in Daniel 7:13 indicate an analogy?

In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. (NIV) I don't know ...
Garrett Anderson's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
50 views

Does 2nd Peter have extant manuscripts that are a combination of Greek and Aramaic?

I heard from somewhere (I cannot recall) that the extant manuscripts of 2nd Peter were written in a combination of Aramaic and Greek, is there any evidence for this? Example: (1 particular manuscript ...
Cork88's user avatar
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What is the root Aramaic translated as ‘cowardly’ in Revelation 21:8 seeing as the Greek ‘δειλός’ is used both in Mark 4:40 and in Revelation 21?

I’ve always found Jesus’ rebuke of his disciples in the Mark 4 passage a bit harsh when considering that that same word also occurs in Revelation 21:8 — “But as for the cowardly, the faithless, the ...
ed huff's user avatar
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2 votes
2 answers
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What is "thrown" into the "fire" in Daniel 7:11 - the "beast" or its "body"?

Daniel 7:11 "As I continued to watch, the beast was slain, and its body was destroyed and thrown into the blazing fire. (Berean Standard Bible)
JBR's user avatar
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3 answers
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Targum - Aramaic Translation of Tanakh... Did Jesus use Hebrew Bible or Targum? [closed]

John records the following statement by Jesus: Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. (John 5:39) The scriptures that Jesus refers ...
sam kim's user avatar
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2 answers
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Is the god in Daniel 11:38 a god of "Fortresses" or of "Egypt"?

מִצְרַ֖יִם (miṣ·ra·yim) is the original Hebrew name for Egypt. Mizraim is the dual form of matzor, meaning a "mound" or "fortress". מָֽעֻזִּ֔ים (mā·‘uz·zîm) is the name of the god ...
Bnpg's user avatar
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If Thomas at John 20:28 was speaking in Aramaic, what are the options for what he originally said?

At John 20:28, Thomas famously exclaims "My Lord and my God!" This could be translated in different ways. In particular, 'Lord' is ambiguous (Adonai or Adoni?) and 'God' is ambiguous (God or ...
Only True God's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
92 views

In which verses, if any, is the word ܨܘܘܬܐ used in the Syriac Peshitta Bible? [closed]

Also, does this word have a different meaning in Syriac when compared to other dialects of Aramaic?
TruthSeeker's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
1k views

The word mə·ra·ḥe·p̄eṯ translation in Genesis 1:2

According to Biblehub.com, the word מְרַחֶ֖פֶת, that is mə·ra·ḥe·p̄eṯ should be translated "To brood" (One possibility). However, that Bible passage (Genesis 1:2) is almost always ...
Eliel's user avatar
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4 votes
3 answers
341 views

Evidence for the unity of Daniel

I understand that the book of Daniel is comprised of two languages: Aramaic from chapter 2:4 to 7:25, the narrative part, and Hebrew in chapters 8 to 12, the prophetic and apocalyptic part. I ...
user329957's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
599 views

Duplicate meaning of anothen in John 3 when speaking Aramaic

In studying Jesus' discussion with Nicodemus it is interesting to note the duplicate meaning of anothen and how Jesus could be using this duplicate meaning to probe Nicodemus' understanding of ...
Ryan Korosec's user avatar
3 votes
3 answers
1k views

Κηφάς (Greek proper name) < κεϕαλή (head) < πέτρος (rock)?

Are Κηφάς (a Greek proper name < Aramaic כיפא‎, kēp̄ā, "rock"), κεϕαλή (head), and πέτρος (rock) etymologically related? Jn. 1:42: "Thou shalt be called Cephas (Κηφάς), which is ...
Geremia's user avatar
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4 votes
3 answers
1k views

Mark 10:17-18 - Aramaic word for ἀγαθὸς

We read in Mark 10:17-18 And as he was setting out on his journey, a man ran up and knelt before him, and asked him, "Good Teacher, what must I do to inherit eternal life?" And Jesus said ...
Jeschu's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
2k views

Is Acts 26:14 testifying Jesus spoke : Hebrew or Aramaic?

Is Acts 26:14 testifying ישׁוּעָ Jesus ( Ἰησοῦς) spoke עִבְרִי Hebrew (Ἑβραΐδι) or ܐܪܡܝܐ Aramaic? When studying Acts 26:14 from the [ESV] translation, we read : " And when we had all fallen to ...
חִידָה's user avatar
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2 votes
2 answers
211 views

Is this a possible reading of Mark 2:10, "son of man" having authority?

Mark 2:10 is the first place in Mark where the phrase "son of man" appears. Jesus is at the synagogue in Capernaum, where he sees a paralyzed man and tells him his sins are forgiven. The ...
user avatar
9 votes
4 answers
3k views

Did Jesus read the Tanakh in Aramaic?

The NT written in Greek masks to some extent details about the life of Jesus. But when the gospels go through the effort of quoting Jesus directly in his final moments, they are left translating His ...
Nihil Sine Deo's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
463 views

Is Aramaic "bar enos," "son of man," identifiable as a definite or indefinite form? [closed]

In the written NT, "the son of man" is "ο γιος του ανθρώπου," with a definite article "ο." This would presumably be a Greek translation of an Aramaic phrase used during ...
user avatar
9 votes
1 answer
1k views

Why is Jeremiah's name spelled differently in the book of Jeremiah?

Jeremiah is ירמיהו and means "Whom the LORD has appointed." It appears even the LORD uses this name: And the word of the LORD came to me, saying, “Jeremiah, what do you see?” And I said, “I ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
1 vote
4 answers
6k views

How accurate is the statement, "I am the Living God" in Matthew 14:27 found in the Aramaic Bible?

The English translation of Matthew 14:27 https://biblehub.com/aramaic-plain-english/matthew/14.htm says "I am the Living God". Is this a valid translation and is the Aramaic Bible correct to ...
user3125707's user avatar
9 votes
4 answers
4k views

In Mark 5:41 and other NT passages, Why is Christ quoted in Aramaic?

Why does Christ or NT writers sometimes use Aramaic; Example Mark 5:41 Talitha Cumi And he took the damsel by the hand, and said unto her, Talitha cumi; which is, being interpreted, Damsel, I say ...
DocMartin's user avatar
6 votes
7 answers
37k views

Tetelestai - What did Jesus really say in John 19:30 assuming he spoke Aramaic or Hebrew?

I have been researching for a long time John 19:30, more specifically the word Tetelestai (τετελεσται) in the Greek. But recently came across the topic of the Hebrew Gospels (possible late ...
Juan Torres's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
74 views

Has there been any research into why the writers of Matthew and Luke used ἐπιούσιος (Epiousios) instead of the original Aramaic?

Epiousios (ἐπιούσιος) is found only in Matthew 6:11 and Luke 11:3. The fact that it is found nowhere else in the Koine Greek literature that we have makes it seem reasonable to assume that this word ...
terminex9's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
762 views

Why in Mark 5:41 the words of Jesus are reported in aramaic?

I find it strange that we have the words of Jesus talitha coum reported also in aramaic (siryiac), because there is no apparent reason to preserve the original language of exactly those words and not ...
Ettore Panizon's user avatar
7 votes
3 answers
8k views

Is there a Greek or Aramaic word for "rope" that is similar to the word for "camel?"

I'm looking at Matthew 19 (New American Standard Bible), specifically at the interaction Jesus had with the young man who wanted to obtain eternal life (v. 16ff). In verse 24, Jesus tells the ...
Papa Pat's user avatar
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7 votes
2 answers
190 views

Anyone know why Σιλωάμ in John 9:7 has the μ at the end

Anyone know why Σιλωάμ in John 9:7 has the μ at the end. The Hebrew New Testament (Bible Society of Israel) has הַשִּׁלּוֹחַ (apparently qal passive participle) with no ending m sound from the Hebrew ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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-1 votes
1 answer
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comprehension of ancient languages [closed]

is it necessary to have deep understanding/comprehension of ancient languages to know the "fullness" of the message of the Bible?
Anthony Carl Martin Edd's user avatar
9 votes
2 answers
5k views

What did Nebuchadnezzar actually say in Daniel 3:25?

In Daniel 3:25, both Young's Literal and Green's Literal give : ... a son of the gods whereas the KJV gives : ... the son of God. Young lists the word Elah, as being the Chaldee word which ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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0 votes
1 answer
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What was the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30? [closed]

I want to know the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30: "I and the Father are one." "Egō kai ho Patēr hen esmen." Specifically, I want to know whether the probable ...
Johannes's user avatar
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2 votes
6 answers
32k views

Are the seven times in Daniel 4:16 seven literal years?

Daniel 4:16 (ESV) reads: Let his mind be changed from a man’s, and let a beast’s mind be given to him; and let seven periods of time pass over him. This corresponds to the Daniel 4:13 in the MT (...
Jerome's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
2k views

Were the Hellenistic Jews and Hebraic Jews able to speak each other's language in Acts 6:1?

In Acts 6:1 what were the distinguishing differences between the Hellenistic Jews and Hebraic Jews? The related questions to this passage are: 1) How unfamiliar were the Hellenistic Jews to ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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1 vote
3 answers
2k views

Why Hebrew in Acts 21:37-40

Why Did Paul use Hebrew in Acts 21:37-40? Does His use of Hebrew in this passage indicate or prove that Jesus taught in Aramaic or Hebrew and that the gospels only contain the voice of Jesus and not ...
Ken Banks's user avatar
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4 votes
5 answers
7k views

Two words for love in John 21:15–17

I haven't found a way to search to see if questions on specific Biblical passages have already been asked. I'm trying to find out if anyone has dealt with Jesus' possible Hebrew/Aramaic words in the ...
Perry Webb's user avatar
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6 votes
4 answers
7k views

Correct/true translation of Revelation 13:18

It was brought to my attention that the original Greek says that "....for the number is that of a man", should actually read "....for the number is that of man". This infers that the "number" is tied ...
Deb S.'s user avatar
  • 57
3 votes
2 answers
2k views

Is there a Hebrew equivalent for the Greek word recorded as Gabriel's initial greeting to Mary in Luke 1?

I am moving this question from https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/60285/38450 Gabriel addressed Mary as "O favored one" in Luke 1:28 (ESV). From Strong's, according to http://blueletterbible....
MutluAnne's user avatar
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3 votes
4 answers
213 views

During exegesis, should we consider the original language in which Jesus spoke?

When we do exegesis of Jesus's words for example should we take into consideration the original language in which he spoke? For example: Many try to argue that Jesus made a reference to Exodus 3:14-...
Sebastian Clinciu's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
654 views

In Mark 14:36 ("Abba, Father") is the repetition Jesus' or Mark's?

Mark 14:36 And he said, Abba, Father, all things are possible unto thee... Is there any way to know if Jesus actually said, "Father, Father" ("Abba, Abba") here, with Mark leaving the first "Abba" ...
Eutychus's user avatar
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1 vote
5 answers
597 views

Should the participle κολλώμενος in 1 Corinthians 6:17 be translated as "he that is joined to the Lord" or "he that is joining to the Lord"?

But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit -- 1 Corinthians 6:17 (KJV) In my translation it says "he who is joining", thus presenting quite a different perspective on the matter. I wonder ...
brilliant's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
808 views

How is the word "ἐπιούσιος" translated in the Syriac Peshitta, and what is the significance of the word(s) chosen?

In the lords prayer, the fourth petition says "Give us this day our ἐπιούσιος bread" Lots of ink has been spilt over the correct translation of ἐπιούσιος and no one really knows for sure what it ...
TheIronKnuckle's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
6k views

Was Any of the New Testament Actually Written in Aramaic? [duplicate]

I met a guy that introduced me to the Aramaic English New Testament. I always thought that the New Testament was translated from the original Greek. This version claims: The Aramaic text used in ...
GenericJam's user avatar
6 votes
1 answer
182 views

In Daniel 7:15, what is the meaning of the word נִדְנֶה?

In Dan. 7:15, the Aramaic text states, טו אֶתְכְּרִיַּת רוּחִי אֲנָה דָנִיֵּאל בְּגוֹא נִדְנֶה וְחֶזְוֵי רֵאשִׁי יְבַהֲלֻנַּנִי which the King James Version translates into English as, 15 I ...
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