Questions tagged [1-peter]

The Apostle Peter's first epistle.

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15
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10answers
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What is meant in 1 Peter 3:21 when it says “baptism now saves you”

In 1 Pet 3:21 it says (NASB, emphasis added): Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you—not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience—through the ...
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Does the idea of being “born again” have a root earlier than John/Peter (or Jesus)?

In John 3:3, Jesus famously tells Nicodemus that to see the kingdom of God, one must be born again. Likewise, 1 Peter 1:3 and 1:23 both use this idea of a new or second birth. 1 Peter 1:3[...] In his ...
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1answer
90 views

1 Peter 3:21 in Papyrus 72 and Codex Sinaiticus

1 Peter 3:21 I recently noticed that in both Papyrus 72 and Codex Sinaiticus a semicolon appears before baptism. Wouldn’t this move baptism out of the first part of the verse and change the verse ...
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1answer
45 views

1 Peter 2:3, what is the literal translation of the Greek and Latin text?

1 Peter 2:3 (GNT): εἴπερ ἐγεύσασθε ὅτι χρηστὸς ὁ Κύριος. 1 Peter 2:3 (Latin Vulgate): si gustastis quoniam dulcis Dominus 1 Peter 2:3 (DRB): If so be you have tasted that ...
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2answers
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1 Peter 4:18, what is the nature of Salvation Work?

1 Peter 4:18 (DRB): And if the just man shall scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear? 1 Timothy 4:10 (DRB): For therefore we labor and are reviled, because we hope in ...
2
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1answer
44 views

1 Peter 3:22, what are the accurate translations of this verse?

1 Peter 3:22 (DRB): Who is on the right hand of God, swallowing down death, that we might be made heirs of life everlasting: being gone into heaven, the angels and powers and virtues being made ...
2
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1answer
114 views

In 1 Peter 4:17 is Peter referring to “God's house” (ie: the temple) or his “household”?

[1Pe 4:17-18 DBY] (17) For the time of having the judgment begin from the house of God is come; but if first from us, what shall be the end of those who obey not the glad tidings of God? (18) And if ...
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3answers
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Translation of 1 Peter 3:21 and baptism

συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς ἐπερώτημα εἰς Θεόν Can this phrase from 1 Peter 3:21 be translated as "the request addressed (by God) to a good conscience in God." meaning that God demands baptism from every man ...
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2answers
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Verse Division in 1 Peter 3:15-16 / μετά πραΰτητος καί φόβου in

In 1 Peter 3, the Greek phrase μετά πραΰτητος καί φόβου appears in verse 15 in the Textus Receptus (https://www.blueletterbible.org/nasb/1pe/3/15/t_conc_1154015), but in verse 16 in the GNT (https://...
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1answer
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1 Peter 2:11, does Peter mean by (soul) (the spirit)?

1 Peter 2:11 (DRB): Dearly beloved, I beseech you as strangers and pilgrims, to refrain yourselves from carnal desires which war against the soul, It's clear that the Bible distinguishes between (...
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5answers
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What does “the grace of life” refer to in 1 Peter 3:7?

My question is pretty straightforward. I'm wondering what "the grace of life" refers to in this verse: Likewise, husbands, live with your wives in an understanding way, showing honor to the woman ...
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3answers
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Do we receive the full measure of God’s grace on earth? (1 Peter 1:13)

NASB translation of 1 Peter 1:13: “Therefore, prepare your minds for action, keep sober in spirit, fix your hope completely on the grace to be brought to you at the revelation of Jesus Christ.” ...
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4answers
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What does “suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin” in 1 Peter 4:1 mean?

1 Peter 4:1: Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; (Emphasis added) What ...
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2answers
90 views

In 1 Peter 5:8 is “your adversary, the devil” a reference to persecuting Jews in cahoots with Rome?

Peter speaks of a "roaring lion" on the prowl. I don't think anyone thinks that an actual lion is the problem. Nor does the Satan eat humans that I'm aware of. [1Pe 5:8-11 CSB] (8) Be sober-...
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4answers
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How do the waters of Noah's flood correspond to baptism (1 Peter 3:21)?

In the NIV and the Berean Study Bible (apparently the most literal Bible translation according to its website) versions, 1 Peter 3:21 reads: "and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you ...
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5answers
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What is the literal meaning of “royal priesthood” in 1 Peter 2:9?

"But you are a chosen people, a royal priesthood, a holy nation..." - 1 Peter 2:9 (NIV) I've understood the phrase "royal priesthood" to mean something along the lines of "priesthood that serves ...
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1answer
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Why does St. Jerome translate αληθείας as caritatis in 1 Pet. 1:22?

Why does St. Jerome translate αληθείας as caritatis in 1 Pet. 1:22? obedientia [υπακοή] caritatis [αληθείας = "of the truth"] He uses "non obedire veritati" for "αληθεία μη πείθεσθαι" in Gal. 3:1.
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1answer
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How can be translated 1Peter 3:21?

Good morning. For some time I have a question about 1 Peter 3:21. I want to know all the possibilities of translating the text to know how to interpret the text. I noticed that there are textual ...
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10answers
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1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was “foreknown”. How was he then preexistant?

American KJV 1 Peter 1:20 says of Christ, Who truly was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you. It seems contradictory to say someone is "...
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3answers
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Translation of 1Peter 1 13

It is written in 1Peter chapter 1 verse 13: Διὸ ἀναζωσάμενοι τὰς ὀσφύας τῆς διανοίας ὑμῶν νήφοντες τελείως ἐλπίσατε ἐπὶ τὴν φερομένην ὑμῖν χάριν ἐν ἀποκαλύψει Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ Wherefore having girded ...
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2answers
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What does 'through the sanctifying work of the Spirit'' mean in 1 Peter 1:2?

The phrase ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος (1 Pet. 1:2b) is rendered ''through the sanctifying work of the Spirit'' in NIV. who have been chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through ...
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2answers
73 views

How can we accurately translate the Greek phrase ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος into English?

The following English Bible translations varied in how they render the phrase ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος. ''in the sanctification of the Spirit'' (ESV) ''by the sanctifying work of the Spirit'' (...
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What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?

In the New Testament the city of Babylon is mentioned a few times. Notably in the book of Revelation: 6Then I saw another angel flying in midair, and he had the eternal gospel to proclaim to ...
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3answers
148 views

According to 1 Peter 2:7-8, unto what were the disobedient “destined?”

I am seeking a grammatical analysis of 1 Peter 2:(7-)8 (especially as rendered in the King James and NET translations, respectively) in order to determine what they are “destined unto” or what is “...
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4answers
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In 1 Peter 4:5 what does “ready to judge the living and the dead” mean?

1 Peter 4:5 But they will have to give account to him who is ready to judge the living and the dead. I hope it's OK to put 2 questions based on the same verse. When the author wrote the sentence ...
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3answers
460 views

In 1 Peter 3:7, why does Peter refer to the wives as weaker?

The thrust of 1 Peter 2:13-3:7 seems to be about living differently in existing relationships "for the Lord's sake" because we have been changed - note 2:13 "for the Lord's sake...", 3:1 "in the same ...
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5answers
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1 Peter 3:21 - What does “an appeal to God for a good conscience” mean?

There seems to be only one verse in the New Testament that directly says what baptism is, spiritually: 1 Peter 3:21. But the critical phrase is translated in many different ways: Baptism, ... now ...
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4answers
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Who did Jesus preach to in 1 Peter 3:19?

1 Peter 3:19 says that Jesus preached unto spirits in prison; are these spirits associated with the angels of 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 1:6? If not who were the spirits that He preached to?
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3answers
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Is 1 Peter 1:12 saying that the angels in heaven are aware of what is happening on earth?

It was revealed to them that they were serving not themselves but you, in the things that have now been announced to you through those who preached the good news to you by the Holy Spirit sent ...
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2answers
237 views

Why do some versions have “Christ” in 1 Peter 3:15 while others have “God”?

I'm finding inconsistencies between translations of 1 Peter 3:15 KJV But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts... NASB but sanctify Christ as Lord in your hearts ESV but in your hearts ...
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3answers
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What did Sarah mean by calling Abraham her “lord”?

In Genesis 18:12 Sarah says, After I am worn out, and my lord is old, shall I have pleasure? The word "lord" is Strong's Hebrew 113, אָדוֹן. 1 Peter 3:6 suggests that her calling her husband "...
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3answers
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Does 1 Peter 2:8 suggest humanity is destined or called to purposes set by God?

When reading 1 Peter 2:8 (NIV) I misinterpreted the meaning of 'destiny' when applied to the non-believers: and, "A stone that causes people to stumble and a rock that makes them fall." They ...
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4answers
430 views

Translation of the aorist indicative in John 1:14 versus 1 Peter 1:24

The Greek in John 1:14 says καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας. Both ἐγένετο and ἐσκήνωσεν ...
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1answer
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What is the basis for translating ἀντίτυπον as “symbol” in 1 Peter 3:21?

ὃ καὶ ὑμᾶς ἀντίτυπον νῦν σώζει βάπτισμα, οὐ σαρκὸς ἀπόθεσις ῥύπου ἀλλὰ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς ἐπερώτημα εἰς θεόν, δι' ἀναστάσεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, 1 Peter 3:21 (Westcott and Hort 1881) and this ...
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2answers
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What evidence supports the theory that the author of 1 Peter was familiar with Galatians?

In another forum, a question was raised about 1 Peter which implied that the author of 1 Peter was familiar with Paul's Epistle to the Galatians. What textual evidence (within 1 Peter) supports the ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek word sometimes translated “quiet” in 1 Peter 3:4?

I am looking for the correct Greek word and definition for the word used in 1 Peter 3:4 about the woman having a gentle and quiet spirit. [L]et your adorning be the hidden person of the heart with ...
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3answers
170 views

Why doesn't St. Paul use LOVE for each of the members, when he lays out the Rules for a Christian Households [Col 3:18-20]?

In laying out Rules for a Christian Households, St. Paul says in: Colossians 3:18-20 (RSVCE) Rules for Christian Households 18 Wives, be subject to your husbands, as is fitting in the Lord. 19 ...
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1answer
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What is “a sprinkling of blood” in 1 Peter 1:2

κατὰ (according to) πρόγνωσιν (foreknowledge) Θεοῦ (of God) Πατρός (Father) ἐν (by) ἁγιασμῷ (a sanctification) Πνεύματος (of spirit) εἰς (into) ὑπακοὴν (obedience) καὶ (and) ῥαντισμὸν (a sprinkling) ...
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1answer
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In 1 Peter 1:2, why is “of blood” in the genitive?

In 1 Peter 1:2, why is "of blood" in the genitive? 1Pe 1:2 according to a foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, to obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus ...
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3answers
886 views

What is the origin of the household tables?

The household tables in Colossians 3:18-4:1, in Ephesians 5:21-6:9, and in 1 Peter 2:18-3:7 all have a distinct rhetorical form bearing resemblance to one another. The general form seems to be: A[1], ...
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2answers
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Who are the πρεσβυτέροις in 1 Peter 5:1-5?

ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Α΄ 5:5 (SBLGNT) ὁμοίως, νεώτεροι, ὑποτάγητε πρεσβυτέροις. πάντες δὲ ἀλλήλοις τὴν ταπεινοφροσύνην ἐγκομβώσασθε, ὅτι Ὁ θεὸς ὑπερηφάνοις ἀντιτάσσεται ταπεινοῖς δὲ δίδωσιν χάριν. 1 Peter ...
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What does the grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1 Peter 4:6 tell us about the order of the events in the verse?

In the following verse: For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 ...
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2answers
302 views

Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3

Why do certain translations add the word 'fine' in 1 Peter 3:3 whilst others do not? Let your adornment not be the external kind, braiding hair and putting on gold jewelry or putting on fine ...
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1answer
192 views

Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?

As I've mentioned in other posts/questions, I am a novice to NT Greek and translation (but I'm trying to fix that!). Today, I randomly picked 1 Peter 3:1-6 to translate as an exercise. I kinda sorta ...
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1answer
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A doubt related to 1 Peter 3:20

I think that 1 Peter 3:20 is usually rendered into English like this: ... Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a ...
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4answers
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Interpretation of the dead ones in 1 Peter 4:6?

1st Peter 4:6: For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit (KJV) Who ...
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1answer
292 views

Were the household tables in Peter and Paul counter-cultural in their day?

The household tables in Paul's letters and in 1 Peter pair up sets of people: Wives submit to your husbands : Husbands love your wives Children obey your fathers : Fathers don't exasperate your ...
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2answers
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In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?

The Greek text of the Textus Receptus: εἰς κληρονομίαν ἄφθαρτον καὶ ἀμίαντον καὶ ἀμάραντον τετηρημένην ἐν οὐρανοῖς εἰς ἡμᾶς εἰς ἡμᾶς are basic Greek words, so how could such learned Greek ...
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2answers
803 views

Translation questions “right, may, might” as listed below

John 1:12 "to all who received Him, to those who believed in His name, He gave the right to become children of God." John 20:31 "but these (signs) are written so that you may believe that Jesus is ...
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1answer
274 views

“Eternity perspective” in 1 Peter 4:6?

For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate [to be] conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also ...