Questions tagged [1-peter]
The Apostle Peter's first epistle.
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In 1 Peter 4:17 is Peter referring to “God's house” (ie: the temple) or his “household”?
[1Pe 4:17-18 DBY] (17) For the time of having the judgment begin from the house of God is come; but if first from us, what shall be the end of those who obey not the glad tidings of God? (18) And if ...
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2answers
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Verse Division in 1 Peter 3:15-16 / μετά πραΰτητος καί φόβου in
In 1 Peter 3, the Greek phrase μετά πραΰτητος καί φόβου appears in verse 15 in the Textus Receptus (https://www.blueletterbible.org/nasb/1pe/3/15/t_conc_1154015), but in verse 16 in the GNT (https://...
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Translation of 1Peter 1 13
It is written in 1Peter chapter 1 verse 13:
Διὸ ἀναζωσάμενοι τὰς ὀσφύας τῆς διανοίας ὑμῶν νήφοντες τελείως ἐλπίσατε ἐπὶ τὴν φερομένην ὑμῖν χάριν ἐν ἀποκαλύψει Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
Wherefore having girded ...
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1answer
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How can be translated 1Peter 3:21?
Good morning. For some time I have a question about 1 Peter 3:21. I want to know all the possibilities of translating the text to know how to interpret the text. I noticed that there are textual ...
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2answers
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What does 'through the sanctifying work of the Spirit'' mean in 1 Peter 1:2?
The phrase ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος (1 Pet. 1:2b) is rendered ''through the sanctifying work of the Spirit'' in NIV.
who have been chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father,
through ...
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How can we accurately translate the Greek phrase ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος into English?
The following English Bible translations varied in how they render the phrase ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος.
''in the sanctification of the Spirit'' (ESV)
''by the sanctifying work of the Spirit'' (...
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In 1 Peter 3:7, why does Peter refer to the wives as weaker?
The thrust of 1 Peter 2:13-3:7 seems to be about living differently in existing relationships "for the Lord's sake" because we have been changed - note 2:13 "for the Lord's sake...", 3:1 "in the same ...
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4answers
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In 1 Peter 4:5 what does “ready to judge the living and the dead” mean?
1 Peter 4:5 But they will have to give account to him who is ready
to judge the living and the dead.
I hope it's OK to put 2 questions based on the same verse.
When the author wrote the sentence ...
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3answers
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According to 1 Peter 2:7-8, unto what were the disobedient “destined?”
I am seeking a grammatical analysis of 1 Peter 2:(7-)8 (especially as rendered in the King James and NET translations, respectively) in order to determine what they are “destined unto” or what is “...
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Why do some versions have “Christ” in 1 Peter 3:15 while others have “God”?
I'm finding inconsistencies between translations of 1 Peter 3:15
KJV
But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts...
NASB
but sanctify Christ as Lord in your hearts
ESV
but in your hearts ...
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4answers
324 views
Translation of the aorist indicative in John 1:14 versus 1 Peter 1:24
The Greek in John 1:14 says
καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
Both ἐγένετο and ἐσκήνωσεν ...
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1 Peter 3:21 - What does “an appeal to God for a good conscience” mean?
There seems to be only one verse in the New Testament that directly says what baptism is, spiritually: 1 Peter 3:21. But the critical phrase is translated in many different ways:
Baptism, ... now ...
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1answer
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In 1 Peter 1:2, why is “of blood” in the genitive?
In 1 Peter 1:2, why is "of blood" in the genitive?
1Pe 1:2 according to a foreknowledge of God the Father, in
sanctification of the Spirit, to obedience and sprinkling of the
blood of Jesus ...
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1answer
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What is “a sprinkling of blood” in 1 Peter 1:2
κατὰ (according to) πρόγνωσιν (foreknowledge) Θεοῦ (of God) Πατρός (Father) ἐν (by) ἁγιασμῷ (a sanctification) Πνεύματος (of spirit) εἰς (into) ὑπακοὴν (obedience) καὶ (and) ῥαντισμὸν (a sprinkling) ...
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1answer
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What is the basis for translating ἀντίτυπον as “symbol” in 1 Peter 3:21?
ὃ καὶ ὑμᾶς ἀντίτυπον νῦν σώζει βάπτισμα, οὐ σαρκὸς ἀπόθεσις ῥύπου
ἀλλὰ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς ἐπερώτημα εἰς θεόν, δι' ἀναστάσεως Ἰησοῦ
Χριστοῦ,
1 Peter 3:21 (Westcott and Hort 1881)
and this ...
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What is the meaning of the Greek word sometimes translated “quiet” in 1 Peter 3:4?
I am looking for the correct Greek word and definition for the word used in 1 Peter 3:4 about the woman having a gentle and quiet spirit.
[L]et your adorning be the hidden person of the heart with ...
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2answers
188 views
What evidence supports the theory that the author of 1 Peter was familiar with Galatians?
In another forum, a question was raised about 1 Peter which implied that the author of 1 Peter was familiar with Paul's Epistle to the Galatians.
What textual evidence (within 1 Peter) supports the ...
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3answers
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Is 1 Peter 1:12 saying that the angels in heaven are aware of what is happening on earth?
It was revealed to them that they were serving not themselves but you,
in the things that have now been announced to you through those who
preached the good news to you by the Holy Spirit sent ...
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3answers
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Does 1 Peter 2:8 suggest humanity is destined or called to purposes set by God?
When reading 1 Peter 2:8 (NIV) I misinterpreted the meaning of 'destiny' when applied to the non-believers:
and, "A stone that causes people to stumble and a rock that makes them fall." They ...
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2answers
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Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3
Why do certain translations add the word 'fine' in 1 Peter 3:3 whilst others do not?
Let your adornment not be the external kind, braiding hair and putting on gold jewelry or putting on fine ...
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1answer
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Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?
As I've mentioned in other posts/questions, I am a novice to NT Greek and translation (but I'm trying to fix that!).
Today, I randomly picked 1 Peter 3:1-6 to translate as an exercise. I kinda sorta ...
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9answers
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1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was “foreknown”. How was he then preexistant?
American KJV 1 Peter 1:20 says of Christ,
Who truly was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you.
It seems contradictory to say someone is "...
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2answers
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What does “suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin” in 1 Peter 4:1 mean?
1 Peter 4:1: Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; (Emphasis added)
What ...
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5answers
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What is the literal meaning of “royal priesthood” in 1 Peter 2:9?
"But you are a chosen people, a royal priesthood, a holy nation..." - 1 Peter 2:9 (NIV)
I've understood the phrase "royal priesthood" to mean something along the lines of "priesthood that serves ...
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9answers
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What is meant in 1 Peter 3:21 when it says “baptism now saves you”
In 1 Pet 3:21 it says (NASB, emphasis added):
Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you—not the removal of dirt
from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience—through the
...
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3answers
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Why doesn't St. Paul use LOVE for each of the members, when he lays out the Rules for a Christian Households [Col 3:18-20]?
In laying out Rules for a Christian Households, St. Paul says in:
Colossians 3:18-20 (RSVCE)
Rules for Christian Households
18 Wives, be subject to your husbands, as is fitting in the Lord.
...
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3answers
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What did Sarah mean by calling Abraham her “lord”?
In Genesis 18:12 Sarah says,
After I am worn out, and my lord is old, shall I have pleasure?
The word "lord" is Strong's Hebrew 113, אָדוֹן.
1 Peter 3:6 suggests that her calling her husband "...
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5answers
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Does the idea of being “born again” have a root earlier than John/Peter (or Jesus)?
In John 3:3, Jesus famously tells Nicodemus that to see the kingdom of God, one must be born again. Likewise, 1 Peter 1:3 and 1:23 both use this idea of a new or second birth.
1 Peter 1:3[...] In ...
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2answers
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What does the grammatical tense of the verb “judged” in 1 Peter 4:6 tell us about the order of the events in the verse?
In the following verse:
For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit. (1 ...
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1answer
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A doubt related to 1 Peter 3:20
I think that 1 Peter 3:20 is usually rendered into English like this:
... Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God
waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a ...
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4answers
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Who did Jesus preach to in 1 Peter 3:19?
1 Peter 3:19 says that Jesus preached unto spirits in prison; are these spirits associated with the angels of 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 1:6? If not who were the spirits that He preached to?
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What is Babylon refering to in the New Testament?
In the New Testament the city of Babylon is mentioned a few times. Notably in the book of Revelation:
6Then I saw another angel flying in midair, and he had the
eternal gospel to proclaim to ...
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1answer
237 views
Were the household tables in Peter and Paul counter-cultural in their day?
The household tables in Paul's letters and in 1 Peter pair up sets of people:
Wives submit to your husbands : Husbands love your wives
Children obey your fathers : Fathers don't exasperate your ...
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2answers
648 views
Translation questions “right, may, might” as listed below
John 1:12
"to all who received Him, to those who believed in His name, He gave the right to become children of God."
John 20:31
"but these (signs) are written so that you may believe that Jesus is ...
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3answers
719 views
What is the origin of the household tables?
The household tables in Colossians 3:18-4:1, in Ephesians 5:21-6:9, and in 1 Peter 2:18-3:7 all have a distinct rhetorical form bearing resemblance to one another. The general form seems to be:
A[1], ...
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1answer
189 views
“Eternity perspective” in 1 Peter 4:6?
For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate [to be] conformed
to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many
brethren. Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also ...
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2answers
138 views
In 1 Peter 1:4, why did the translators of the KJV translate εἰς ἡμᾶς as “for you”?
The Greek text of the Textus Receptus:
εἰς κληρονομίαν ἄφθαρτον καὶ ἀμίαντον καὶ ἀμάραντον τετηρημένην ἐν οὐρανοῖς εἰς ἡμᾶς
εἰς ἡμᾶς are basic Greek words, so how could such learned Greek ...
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2answers
336 views
Does Peter allude to the stones removed in the Maccabbean revolt?
In 1 Peter 2:4-10 (NIV) we read a comparison between Jesus as a rejected living stones, and those Peter is writing to being likewise living stones. He says that though they were once not a people, now ...
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4answers
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Interpretation of the dead ones in 1 Peter 4:6?
1st Peter 4:6:
For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead,
that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live
according to God in the spirit (KJV)
Who ...
4
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1answer
295 views
What's the relationship between 1 Peter 4:1 and Ephesians 6:11
Peter talks about arming oneself with a thought/attitude:
Since therefore Christ suffered in the flesh, arm yourselves with the same way of thinking, for whoever has suffered in the flesh has ...
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1answer
457 views
1 Pet 3:3 (NASB) “Your adornment must not be *merely* external”
1 Pet 3:3
Net Bible Let your beauty not be external – the braiding of hair and wearing of gold jewelry or fine clothes
NIV Your beauty should not come from outward adornment, such as elaborate ...
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4answers
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What does “the grace of life” refer to in 1 Peter 3:7?
My question is pretty straightforward. I'm wondering what "the grace of life" refers to in this verse:
Likewise, husbands, live with your wives in an understanding way,
showing honor to the woman ...
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3answers
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Does Peter suggest Jesus “descended into hell”?
1 Peter 3:18-22 (ESV):
For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit, in ...
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2answers
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Who are the πρεσβυτέροις in 1 Peter 5:1-5?
ΠΕΤΡΟΥ Α΄ 5:5 (SBLGNT)
ὁμοίως, νεώτεροι, ὑποτάγητε πρεσβυτέροις. πάντες δὲ ἀλλήλοις τὴν ταπεινοφροσύνην ἐγκομβώσασθε, ὅτι Ὁ θεὸς ὑπερηφάνοις ἀντιτάσσεται ταπεινοῖς δὲ δίδωσιν χάριν.
1 Peter ...
