Questions tagged [1-peter]
The Apostle Peter's first epistle.
66
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Are the imprisoned spirits in 1 Peter 3:19 human spirits or fallen angels?
1 Peter 3:18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the righteous for the unrighteous, to bring you to God. He was put to death in the body but made alive in the Spirit. 19After being made alive, he ...
2
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3answers
61 views
Is Peter encouraging believers to train in apologetics in 1 Peter 3:15?
1 Peter 3:15 (ESV):
15 but in your hearts honor Christ the Lord as holy, always being prepared to make a defense to anyone who asks you for a reason for the hope that is in you; yet do it with ...
3
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3answers
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Is God's foreknowledge (1 Peter 1) compatible with the belief in libertarian free will?
Foreknowledge is mentioned twice in the first chapter of 1 Peter. The first instance is found in 1 Peter 1:1-2 regarding the elect exiles:
Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who are elect ...
5
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5answers
156 views
Did Jesus pre-exist in spiritual form as the “Spirit of Christ” at the time of the prophets according to 1 Peter 1:10-12?
Context: I came up with this question after reading this answer.
1 Peter 1:10-12 (NASB):
10 As to this salvation, the prophets who prophesied of the grace that would come to you made careful ...
0
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0answers
80 views
Railing accusation(s)?
1 Peter 3:9: Not rendering evil for evil, or railing for railing: but contrariwise blessing; knowing that ye are thereunto called, that ye should inherit a blessing.
2 Peter 2:11: Whereas angels, ...
4
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5answers
487 views
Who is Babylon in 1 Peter 5:13?
1 Peter 5:13
She who is in Babylon, chosen together with you, sends you her greetings, and so does my son Mark.
Is this the same Babylon in Revelation?
Revelation 14:8
A second angel followed and said,...
3
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3answers
115 views
1 Peter 4:6a teach to dead people. NIV vs ESV
1 Peter 4:6a
New International Version
For this is the reason the gospel was preached even to those who are now dead
English Standard Version
For this is why the gospel was preached even to those ...
2
votes
2answers
29 views
Why does the 'King' or 'Emperor' come last in 1 Peter 2:17?
"Honor all people. Love the brotherhood. Fear God. Honor the king." 1 Peter 2:17 NKJV
The ordering here is curious: people, brotherhood, God... king/emperor. It almost feels like a ...
2
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2answers
77 views
Why was the word “Bishop” used in Titus 1:7 and 1 Peter 2:25 [KJV] instead of “Guardian” (ἐπίσκοπον)?
Why was the word "Bishop" used in Titus 1:7 and 1 Peter 2:25 [KJV] instead of "Guardian" / "Episkopon" (Ἐπίσκοπον)?
1 Peter 2:25 [KJV]
[25] "For ye were as sheep ...
5
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2answers
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What is the status of the word “because” in 1 Peter 2:8? ESV
"They stumble because they disobey the word, as they were destined to do". ESV
There are other questions on this site which go into this verse without, I think, quite settling this point: ...
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2answers
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Is it king or emperor in 1 Peter 2:17?
1 Peter 2:17 NIV
Show proper respect to everyone, love the family of believers, fear God, honor the emperor [βασιλεύς].
Nero was emporor at the time.
Berean Literal Bible
Honor everyone: love the ...
1
vote
4answers
184 views
Is gold perishable?
1 Peter 1:18
For you know that it was not with perishable things such as silver or gold that you were redeemed from the empty way of life handed down to you from your ancestors.
Revelation 21:21
The ...
3
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1answer
123 views
1 Peter 3:21 in Papyrus 72 and Codex Sinaiticus
1 Peter 3:21
I recently noticed that in both Papyrus 72 and Codex Sinaiticus a semicolon appears before baptism. Wouldn’t this move baptism out of the first part of the verse and change the verse ...
1
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1answer
52 views
1 Peter 2:3, what is the literal translation of the Greek and Latin text?
1 Peter 2:3 (GNT):
εἴπερ ἐγεύσασθε ὅτι χρηστὸς ὁ Κύριος.
1 Peter 2:3 (Latin Vulgate):
si gustastis quoniam dulcis Dominus
1 Peter 2:3 (DRB):
If so be you have tasted that ...
1
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2answers
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1 Peter 4:18, what is the nature of Salvation Work?
1 Peter 4:18 (DRB):
And if the just man shall scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear?
1 Timothy 4:10 (DRB):
For therefore we labor and are reviled, because we hope in ...
3
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1answer
70 views
1 Peter 3:22, what are the accurate translations of this verse?
1 Peter 3:22 (DRB):
Who is on the right hand of God, swallowing down death, that we might be made heirs of life everlasting: being gone into heaven, the angels and powers and virtues being made ...
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1answer
77 views
1 Peter 2:11, does Peter mean by (soul) (the spirit)?
1 Peter 2:11 (DRB):
Dearly beloved, I beseech you as strangers and pilgrims, to refrain yourselves from carnal desires which war against the soul,
It's clear that the Bible distinguishes between (...
4
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4answers
166 views
Translation of 1 Peter 3:21 and baptism
συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς ἐπερώτημα εἰς Θεόν
Can this phrase from 1 Peter 3:21 be translated as "the request addressed (by God) to a good conscience in God." meaning that God demands baptism from every man ...
2
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3answers
182 views
Do we receive the full measure of God’s grace on earth? (1 Peter 1:13)
NASB translation of 1 Peter 1:13:
“Therefore, prepare your minds for action, keep sober in spirit, fix your hope completely on the grace to be brought to you at the revelation of Jesus Christ.”
...
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2answers
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In 1 Peter 5:8 is “your adversary, the devil” a reference to persecuting Jews in cahoots with Rome?
Peter speaks of a "roaring lion" on the prowl. I don't think anyone thinks that an actual lion is the problem. Nor does the Satan eat humans that I'm aware of.
[1Pe 5:8-11 CSB] (8) Be sober-...
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4answers
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How do the waters of Noah's flood correspond to baptism (1 Peter 3:21)?
In the NIV and the Berean Study Bible (apparently the most literal Bible translation according to its website) versions, 1 Peter 3:21 reads:
"and this water symbolizes baptism that now saves you ...
1
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1answer
49 views
Why does St. Jerome translate αληθείας as caritatis in 1 Pet. 1:22?
Why does St. Jerome translate αληθείας as caritatis in 1 Pet. 1:22?
obedientia [υπακοή] caritatis [αληθείας = "of the truth"]
He uses "non obedire veritati" for "αληθεία μη πείθεσθαι" in Gal. 3:1.
3
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3answers
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In 1 Peter 4:17 is Peter referring to “God's house” (ie: the temple) or his “household”?
[1Pe 4:17-18 DBY] (17) For the time of having the judgment begin from the house of God is come; but if first from us, what shall be the end of those who obey not the glad tidings of God? (18) And if ...
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2answers
75 views
Verse Division in 1 Peter 3:15-16 / μετά πραΰτητος καί φόβου in
In 1 Peter 3, the Greek phrase μετά πραΰτητος καί φόβου appears in verse 15 in the Textus Receptus (https://www.blueletterbible.org/nasb/1pe/3/15/t_conc_1154015), but in verse 16 in the GNT (https://...
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3answers
101 views
Translation of 1Peter 1 13
It is written in 1Peter chapter 1 verse 13:
Διὸ ἀναζωσάμενοι τὰς ὀσφύας τῆς διανοίας ὑμῶν νήφοντες τελείως ἐλπίσατε ἐπὶ τὴν φερομένην ὑμῖν χάριν ἐν ἀποκαλύψει Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
Wherefore having girded ...
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1answer
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How can be translated 1Peter 3:21?
Good morning. For some time I have a question about 1 Peter 3:21. I want to know all the possibilities of translating the text to know how to interpret the text. I noticed that there are textual ...
0
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2answers
212 views
What does 'through the sanctifying work of the Spirit'' mean in 1 Peter 1:2?
The phrase ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος (1 Pet. 1:2b) is rendered ''through the sanctifying work of the Spirit'' in NIV.
who have been chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father,
through ...
1
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2answers
79 views
How can we accurately translate the Greek phrase ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος into English?
The following English Bible translations varied in how they render the phrase ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος.
''in the sanctification of the Spirit'' (ESV)
''by the sanctifying work of the Spirit'' (...
1
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3answers
584 views
In 1 Peter 3:7, why does Peter refer to the wives as weaker?
The thrust of 1 Peter 2:13-3:7 seems to be about living differently in existing relationships "for the Lord's sake" because we have been changed - note 2:13 "for the Lord's sake...", 3:1 "in the same ...
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4answers
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In 1 Peter 4:5 what does “ready to judge the living and the dead” mean?
1 Peter 4:5 But they will have to give account to him who is ready
to judge the living and the dead.
I hope it's OK to put 2 questions based on the same verse.
When the author wrote the sentence ...
3
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3answers
173 views
According to 1 Peter 2:7-8, unto what were the disobedient “destined?”
I am seeking a grammatical analysis of 1 Peter 2:(7-)8 (especially as rendered in the King James and NET translations, respectively) in order to determine what they are “destined unto” or what is “...
2
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2answers
275 views
Why do some versions have “Christ” in 1 Peter 3:15 while others have “God”?
I'm finding inconsistencies between translations of 1 Peter 3:15
KJV
But sanctify the Lord God in your hearts...
NASB
but sanctify Christ as Lord in your hearts
ESV
but in your hearts ...
1
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4answers
487 views
Translation of the aorist indicative in John 1:14 versus 1 Peter 1:24
The Greek in John 1:14 says
καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
Both ἐγένετο and ἐσκήνωσεν ...
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1 Peter 3:21 - What does “an appeal to God for a good conscience” mean?
There seems to be only one verse in the New Testament that directly says what baptism is, spiritually: 1 Peter 3:21. But the critical phrase is translated in many different ways:
Baptism, ... now ...
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1answer
114 views
In 1 Peter 1:2, why is “of blood” in the genitive?
In 1 Peter 1:2, why is "of blood" in the genitive?
1Pe 1:2 according to a foreknowledge of God the Father, in
sanctification of the Spirit, to obedience and sprinkling of the
blood of Jesus ...
3
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2answers
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What is “a sprinkling of blood” in 1 Peter 1:2
κατὰ (according to) πρόγνωσιν (foreknowledge) Θεοῦ (of God) Πατρός (Father) ἐν (by) ἁγιασμῷ (a sanctification) Πνεύματος (of spirit) εἰς (into) ὑπακοὴν (obedience) καὶ (and) ῥαντισμὸν (a sprinkling) ...
2
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1answer
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What is the basis for translating ἀντίτυπον as “symbol” in 1 Peter 3:21?
ὃ καὶ ὑμᾶς ἀντίτυπον νῦν σώζει βάπτισμα, οὐ σαρκὸς ἀπόθεσις ῥύπου
ἀλλὰ συνειδήσεως ἀγαθῆς ἐπερώτημα εἰς θεόν, δι' ἀναστάσεως Ἰησοῦ
Χριστοῦ,
1 Peter 3:21 (Westcott and Hort 1881)
and this ...
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3answers
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What is the meaning of the Greek word sometimes translated “quiet” in 1 Peter 3:4?
I am looking for the correct Greek word and definition for the word used in 1 Peter 3:4 about the woman having a gentle and quiet spirit.
[L]et your adorning be the hidden person of the heart with ...
4
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2answers
245 views
What evidence supports the theory that the author of 1 Peter was familiar with Galatians?
In another forum, a question was raised about 1 Peter which implied that the author of 1 Peter was familiar with Paul's Epistle to the Galatians.
What textual evidence (within 1 Peter) supports the ...
6
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5answers
870 views
Is 1 Peter 1:12 saying that the angels in heaven are aware of what is happening on earth?
It was revealed to them that they were serving not themselves but you,
in the things that have now been announced to you through those who
preached the good news to you by the Holy Spirit sent ...
8
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4answers
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Does 1 Peter 2:8 suggest humanity is destined or called to purposes set by God?
When reading 1 Peter 2:8 (NIV) I misinterpreted the meaning of 'destiny' when applied to the non-believers:
and, "A stone that causes people to stumble and a rock that makes them fall." They ...
6
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2answers
320 views
Why is 'fine' added in the translation of ἱματίων in 1 Peter 3:3
Why do certain translations add the word 'fine' in 1 Peter 3:3 whilst others do not?
Let your adornment not be the external kind, braiding hair and putting on gold jewelry or putting on fine ...
5
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1answer
207 views
Odd construction in 1 Peter 3:2?
As I've mentioned in other posts/questions, I am a novice to NT Greek and translation (but I'm trying to fix that!).
Today, I randomly picked 1 Peter 3:1-6 to translate as an exercise. I kinda sorta ...
3
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10answers
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1 Peter 1:20 says Christ was “foreknown”. How was he then preexistant?
American KJV 1 Peter 1:20 says of Christ,
Who truly was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you.
It seems contradictory to say someone is "...
5
votes
3answers
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What does “suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin” in 1 Peter 4:1 mean?
1 Peter 4:1: Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin; (Emphasis added)
What ...
9
votes
5answers
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What is the literal meaning of “royal priesthood” in 1 Peter 2:9?
"But you are a chosen people, a royal priesthood, a holy nation..." - 1 Peter 2:9 (NIV)
I've understood the phrase "royal priesthood" to mean something along the lines of "priesthood that serves ...
15
votes
10answers
7k views
What is meant in 1 Peter 3:21 when it says “baptism now saves you”
In 1 Pet 3:21 it says (NASB, emphasis added):
Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you—not the removal of dirt
from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience—through the
...
3
votes
3answers
171 views
Why doesn't St. Paul use LOVE for each of the members, when he lays out the Rules for a Christian Households [Col 3:18-20]?
In laying out Rules for a Christian Households, St. Paul says in:
Colossians 3:18-20 (RSVCE)
Rules for Christian Households
18 Wives, be subject to your husbands, as is fitting in the Lord.
19 ...
5
votes
3answers
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What did Sarah mean by calling Abraham her “lord”?
In Genesis 18:12 Sarah says,
After I am worn out, and my lord is old, shall I have pleasure?
The word "lord" is Strong's Hebrew 113, אָדוֹן.
1 Peter 3:6 suggests that her calling her husband "...
14
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8answers
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Does the idea of being “born again” have a root earlier than John/Peter (or Jesus)?
In John 3:3, Jesus famously tells Nicodemus that to see the kingdom of God, one must be born again. Likewise, 1 Peter 1:3 and 1:23 both use this idea of a new or second birth.
1 Peter 1:3[...] In his ...
