Questions tagged [1-john]

Questions about John's first letter. It contains both warnings about false teachers and spiritual themes about Jesus Christ.

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16
votes
13answers
6k views

How should we understand "he cannot sin" in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the verse ...
14
votes
2answers
3k views

What is the argument against the authenticity of 1 John 5:7-8 in the KJV?

I was reading through Lee Strobel's The Case for the Real Jesus and came across a passage in the book that indicates the inauthenticity of 1 John 5:7-8 in the King James Version: 1 John 5:7-8 (KJV) ...
27
votes
14answers
60k views

What is “sin that leads to death” in 1 John 5:16?

1 John 5:16 (NIV) Emphasis Added If you see any brother or sister commit a sin that does not lead to death, you should pray and God will give them life. I refer to those whose sin does not lead to ...
3
votes
4answers
129 views

What is That 'which' in, "That which was from the beginning..." 1 John 1:1

That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life— 2 the life was made ...
17
votes
12answers
81k views

What is the meaning of "water and blood" in 1 John 5:6?

In 1 John 5:6 John uses water and blood as symbolic short hand, clearly expecting his audience to know the meaning of these two liquids. 6 This is the one who came by water and blood—Jesus Christ. ...
11
votes
1answer
12k views

Why is 1 John 5:7-8, found in the KJV, kept in the NKJV when it is believed to be inauthentic?

1 John 5:7-8 King James Version (KJV) 7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. 8 And there are three that ...
8
votes
2answers
1k views

In 1 John 3:6, is "keeps on sinning" a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in 1611), ...
-4
votes
1answer
2k views

Is the use of ἀγάπη (agape) and ἀγαπάω (agapao) evidence the Gospel and Letters of John were written from Ephesus?

John reports Jesus gave a new command which would identify followers of Jesus Christ: A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love (ἀγαπᾶτε) one another; as I have loved (ἠγάπησα) you, that ye ...
8
votes
3answers
994 views

What is the meaning of the shift from present to aorist in 1 John 2:12-14?

1 John 2:12-14 (NA28): γράφω ὑμῖν, τεκνία, ὅτι ἀφέωνται ὑμῖν αἱ ἁμαρτίαι διὰ τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ. γράφω ὑμῖν, πατέρες, ὅτι ἐγνώκατε τὸν ἀπ᾿ ἀρχῆς. γράφω ὑμῖν, νεανίσκοι, ὅτι νενικήκατε τὸν πονηρόν. ...
5
votes
4answers
7k views

What are the possible interpretations of 1 John 2:19?

What are the possible interpretations and implications of 1 John 2:19, specifically as it relates to the doctrine of eternal security? ? 1 John 2:19 (NASB) 19 They went out from us, but they ...
4
votes
2answers
3k views

What are the arguments for and against Johannine Comma?

There have been many debates regarding the reliability of the Johannine Comma, a verse in 1 John which many textual critics do not think is authentic. Assuming the verse itself is authentic, what are ...
4
votes
2answers
2k views

Perfect love in 1 John

A few days ago I heard someone mentioning fear, and he said, "Yes, I know perfect love casts out all fear, but who of you has perfect love?" But I thought to myself, "In the context of first John, I ...
1
vote
1answer
3k views

What does it mean when it says,"There is a sin unto death" [duplicate]

1 John 5:16 says " If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not ...
7
votes
10answers
7k views

In John 1:29, is there a “the sin” of the world?

John the Baptist said Jesus would take away the sin of the world: On the next day he sees Jesus coming toward him. And he says, “Look— the Lamb of God, the One taking-away the sin of the world. (John ...
10
votes
6answers
4k views

Identity of the "we" in 1 John 1:1?

The letter of 1 John begins in verse 1: That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched—this we ...
21
votes
2answers
13k views

Were 1 John and John’s gospel written by the same person?

I’m interested in internal evidence based on the linguistic/stylistic and (if you like) thematic patterns of the two books. I am less interested for the purpose of this question in whether either was ...
5
votes
3answers
126 views

What is the meaning of tetheatai "has seen" [God] in 1 John 4:12?

This question is based on discussion in the comments on two separate questions here and here No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in ...
0
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2answers
1k views

(John 20) Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting with Christ

In the Gospel of John, Thomas plays a huge role compared to the other gospels. He seems to be present quite a bit, and as a leader. My question is: "Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting of Jesus ...
18
votes
7answers
4k views

Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?

In 1 John 1:8, John says If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. And in chapter 3, verse 9, he says Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his ...
12
votes
6answers
5k views

Who are the "children", "fathers" and "young men" addressed in 1 John 2?

2 My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. ... 12 I am writing to you, little children, because your sins are forgiven for his name's sake. 13 I am ...
11
votes
3answers
915 views

In 1 John 1:1, why is the relative pronoun declined in the neuter gender?

The Greek text of 1 John 1:1–2 according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ ὃ ἦν ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ἡμῶν ὃ ἐθεασάμεθα καὶ αἱ χεῖρες ἡμῶν ἐψηλάφησαν περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ...
5
votes
2answers
648 views

Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?

1 John 4:2 (ESV): 2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God, When I read this verse, my immediate impression is that of ...
5
votes
1answer
377 views

Translation of 1 John 3:2

I recently ran across a proposed alternative translation of 1 John 3:2. I provide here the NA28 (with punctuation omitted for the sake of ignoring the editors’ interpretive opinion), the ESV (because ...
4
votes
4answers
819 views

When (or how) did Jesus say: "God is light and in Him is no darkness at all?"

The introduction of 1 John states: This is the message which we have heard from Him and declare to you... (1:5 NKJV) The writer states they heard a message from Jesus and are now declaring it to ...
0
votes
4answers
172 views

Love outside of God? [closed]

Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. (1 John 4:8 NIV) The reverse would be: Whoever does love does know God, because God is love. If every human being is created in the ...