Questions tagged [1-john]

Questions about John's first letter. It contains both warnings about false teachers and spiritual themes about Jesus Christ.

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2
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2answers
25 views

Why might we say one of these is "better" than the other? 1. God protects him/auton ESV or 2. God keepeth himself/heauton KJB. 1 John 5:18

"We know that everyone who has been born of God does not keep on sinning, but he who was born of God protects him" 1 John 5:18 ESV him/auton Strong's 846. Possibly meaning-Christ born of ...
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1answer
52 views

Does "born" have the same meaning on the two occasions it occurs in 1 John 5:18?"

"We know that whoever is born of God does not sin; but he who has been born of God keeps himself, and the wicked one does not touch him." 1 John 5:18 NKJB. The word "born" occurs ...
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1answer
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How do we interpret James 5:16 in light of 1 John 1:9?

James says: “So confess your sins to one another and pray for one another so that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous person has great effectiveness.” ‭‭James‬ ‭5:16‬ & 1st John 1:9 says: ...
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3answers
680 views

Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?

1 John 4:2 (ESV): 2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God, When I read this verse, my immediate impression is that of ...
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6answers
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What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’?

This following verse has me thinking… 1 JOHN 3:12 not as Cain who was of the wicked one and murdered his brother. [snip] What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’? [Edit] Clarification - this verse seems to ...
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4answers
185 views

Why does John emphasize the keeping of the commandments in his letters?

More than seven times John refers to the keeping of the commandments,it seems there is a strong emphasis on keeping the commandments in the books of John 1 John 2:3-4 ESV And by this we know that we ...
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7answers
566 views

Who is "his brother" in 1 John 5:16?

In considering who can commit sins that lead to death I wonder who the "brother" is in 1 John 5:16: If anyone sees his brother committing a sin not leading to death, he shall ask, and God will give ...
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Is 1st John 1:9 referring to Believers or Unbelievers?

I have heard excellent views for both sides of the coin on this topic, but I was curious as to what others thought about this particular verse. Is 1st John 1:9 referring to BELIEVERS or UNBELIEVERS? ...
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3answers
313 views

How to reconcile 1 John 4:15 with Mathew 8:29?

The fourth chapter of 1 John talks about how we should test every spirit, for not every spirit is of God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. It says in verse 15: 1 John 4:15 ...
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3answers
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How to reconcile John 3:16 and 1 John 2:15?

John 3:16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. 1 John 2:15 Do not love the world or anything in the world. ...
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456 views

Are we sons of God or are we still waiting to be adopted? How do we harmonize?

Paul says that we are awaiting adoption: 23 And not only the creation, but we ourselves, who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait eagerly for adoption as sons, the redemption ...
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6answers
352 views

How are we to test the spirits?

1 John 4:1-6 (NRSV) stresses the importance of testing the spirits, given that not all spirits come from God: Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from ...
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130 views

What is That 'which' in, "That which was from the beginning..." 1 John 1:1

That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life— 2 the life was made ...
3
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5answers
211 views

What does "his love" mean in 1 John 4:12?

1 John 4:12 ESV "No one has ever seen God; if we love one another, God abides in us and his love is perfected in us." Does "his love" here refer to: 1 John 4:9. His love for Jesus,...
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2answers
45 views

Why does 1 John 4:16 switch from plural "we have come to know" to singular "and whoever abides"?

1 John 4:16 "So we have come to know and believe the love that God has for us. God is love, and whoever abides in love abides in God, and God abides in him". ESV. 1 John 14-17: "And we ...
18
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7answers
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Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?

In 1 John 1:8, John says If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. And in chapter 3, verse 9, he says Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his ...
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13answers
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How should we understand "he cannot sin" in 1 John 3:9?

1 John 3:9 (NASB): No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. I am particularly intrigued by the 2nd half of the verse ...
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3answers
208 views

The evil one cannot harm (vs touch) them. NIV vs ESV

1 John 5:18 New International Version We know that anyone born of God does not continue to sin; the One who was born of God keeps them safe, and the evil one cannot harm them. English Standard ...
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3answers
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Is 1 John 2:15-17 talking about this life or the after life?

1 John 2:15-17 (NIV): Do not love the world or anything in the world. If anyone loves the world, love for the Father is not in them. For everything in the world—the lust of the flesh, the lust of the ...
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9answers
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How are we to understand Jesus' words in Matthew 7:21-23, and how do they apply to us today?

Christ speaks some very harsh words in the Gospel of Matthew: Matthew 7:21-23: “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who ...
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We shall be like him because we shall see him as he is?

1 John 3:2: Ἀγαπητοί νῦν τέκνα θεοῦ ἐσμεν, καὶ οὔπω ἐφανερώθη τί ἐσόμεθα. οἴδαμεν ὅτι ἐὰν φανερωθῇ, ὅμοιοι αὐτῷ ἐσόμεθα, ὅτι ὀψόμεθα αὐτὸν, καθώς ἐστιν. (UBS5) Beloved, we are God's children ...
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4answers
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What is John saying in 1 John 4:8?

1 John 4:8 ESV Anyone who does not love does not know God, because God is love. Nestle GNT 1904 ὁ μὴ ἀγαπῶν οὐκ ἔγνω τὸν Θεόν, ὅτι ὁ Θεὸς ἀγάπη ἐστίν. Tischendorf 8th Edition ὁ μὴ ἀγαπῶν ...
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3answers
106 views

How should one understand John 14:1 AND 1John 5:1?

John 14:1:- “Let not your heart be troubled; you believe in God, believe ALSO in Me.” 1John 5:1:- “Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves Him who begot also ...
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4answers
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Perfect love that casts out fear vs Fear of God - Are 1 John 4:18 and 2 Corinthians 7:1 talking about different concepts of fear?

1 John 4:18 (ESV): There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear. For fear has to do with punishment, and whoever fears has not been perfected in love. 2 Corinthians 7:1 (ESV): Since we ...
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3answers
86 views

Do the three nominative nouns in John 10:30 express an 'equivalence'?

εγω και ο πατηρ εν εσμεν [John 10:30 TR, undisputed] I and the Father one are [John 10:30 EGNT ¹] All three nouns 'I' 'Father' and 'one' are, here, nominative singular, as is the article. Thus there ...
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2answers
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What is the proper understanding of παιδία in 1 John?

"Children" and/or "little children" are found 13 times in 1 John. Seven (2:1, 12, 28;3:7, 18; 4:4; 5:21) are the word τεκνίον, which is the diminutive of τέκνον which is used four times (3:1, 2, 10; 5:...
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What is the emphasis of προς in 1 John 2:1 ('with' the Father)?

τεκνια μου ταυτα γραφω υμιν ινα μη αμαρτητε και εαν τις αμαρτη παρακλητον εχομεν προς τον πατερα ιησουν χριστον δικαιον [1 John 2:1 - TR (undisputed)] My little children, these things write I unto ...
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5answers
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You have overcome the evil one. Really?

Matthew 6:13 New International Version And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from the evil one. 1 John 2:14c I write to you, young men, because you are strong, and the word of God lives ...
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1answer
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No one has ever seen God; ἑώρακεν vs τεθέαται

John 1:18 New International Version No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known. has ever seen ἑώρακεν (...
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1answer
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What is the best way to translate Τεκνία in 1 John 2:1 and the other five times?

Τεκνία is the plural diminutive of τέκνον (child). diminutive adjective (14th century) 1 : indicating small size and sometimes the state or quality of being familiarly known, lovable, pitiable, or ...
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3answers
142 views

What is the meaning of tetheatai "has seen" [God] in 1 John 4:12?

This question is based on discussion in the comments on two separate questions here and here No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in ...
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3answers
87 views

Was the Capernaum spirit from God or from Satan?

Mark 1 New International Version 21 They went to Capernaum, and when the Sabbath came, Jesus went into the synagogue and began to teach. 22The people were amazed at his teaching, because he taught ...
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3answers
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What is the root definition of Greek word teknia and paidia in 1st John 2 & 3?

In 1st John 2:1, the Greek word "teknia" is in the vocative case and is translated as Little children. Also in 1st John 2:12 the same Greek word is use again with the same grammar and is translated ...
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1answer
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Does John use οὗτός at the end of his letter to form an inclusio to the beginning of his Gospel?

John begins the Gospel by describing the Word who was with God, came to earth, and returned to His Father: 1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was in ...
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4answers
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In 1 John 4:18, does "because fear hath punishment" mean, "He who fears will be punished"?

1John 4:18 ASV; There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love. Does "because fear hath punishment&...
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12answers
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What is the meaning of "water and blood" in 1 John 5:6?

In 1 John 5:6 John uses water and blood as symbolic short hand, clearly expecting his audience to know the meaning of these two liquids. 6 This is the one who came by water and blood—Jesus Christ. ...
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5answers
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Antichrist, Man of Lawlessness, Beast of Revelation 13

It is generally assumed that the antichrist, the man of lawlessness, and the beast in Revelation 13 all refer to the same end time enemy of God. What is the basis for this assumption? Are there ...
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How could 'Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob' be living eternally in Heaven if they never believed the requirement in 1 John 5:5-13 to receive eternal life?

We read three statements in 1 John 5:5-13 that appear to contradict the teachings of Jesus the Messiah from Matthew 8:10-11 & Matthew 22:30-22 regarding requirements of receiving eternal life. In ...
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4answers
280 views

Translation of 1 John 5:16

I have a question regarding the translation of 1 John 5:16. In the verses below, I have highlighted the translated (added?) words I’m querying. Why does the NIV use ’you’ where the NKJV uses ’he’? [...
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4answers
380 views

What's the meaning of brother in 1 John 2.9-11?

In 1 John 2.9-11, John uses adelphos, or brother. Researching that, I came across The Outline of Biblical Usage by Larry Pierce which says adelphos is sometimes used to mean countryman and co-...
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4answers
128 views

1 John 4:17b In this world we are just like Him. But are we just like Jesus?

NIV 1 John 3:2b But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is. We shall be like him. Easy. Make sense. Then a chapter later in NIV 1 John 4:17b In this ...
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1answer
50 views

Is unconditional love of God biblical?

1 John 4:9–10 “In this the love of God was made manifest among us, that God sent his only son into the world, so that we might live through him. In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he ...
4
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1answer
756 views

In 1 John 5:8, is the reference to spirit, water, and blood an allusion to Jesus' crucifixion?

Is it reasonable to think that the 3 witnesses mentioned in 1 John 5:8, Spirit, Water, and Blood, refer back to the crucifixion? Specifically John 19:34-35 (NASB), 34But one of the soldiers pierced ...
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4answers
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In 1 John 4:3-4, in what sense is John using the word KOSMOS?

The passage seems to contrast a man in the secular order with a man inside the Christian community: KJV 1Jn 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not ...
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1answer
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Is ἐξ ( ἐκ,) " from" or "of" , or either -in 1 John 2:19?

How does it change the meaning of the verse - 1 John 2:19? What is the respective theological implication, if any? 1 John 2:19 KJV -"They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had ...
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0answers
33 views

1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV) why is "Earth" not found? [duplicate]

1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV): For there are three that testify: the Spirit and the water and the blood; and these three agree. For there are three that testify: the Spirit, the water and ...
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2answers
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(John 20) Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting with Christ

In the Gospel of John, Thomas plays a huge role compared to the other gospels. He seems to be present quite a bit, and as a leader. My question is: "Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting of Jesus ...
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1answer
92 views

What does "apestalken" mean in 1 John 4:14?

"the Father has sent [apestalken] his Son to be the Savior of the world", E.S.V. Some possibly relevant thoughts: "the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world": that ...
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1answer
48 views

Is there a relationship between 1 John 4:18 and Revelation 21:8?

1 John 4:18 (ASV): There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love. Revelation 21:8 (ASV): ...
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6answers
14k views

To whom was the letter 1 John written?

I understand that 1 John was directed to Christians who were hit by the rise of Gnosticism. I also understand that the letter was believed to have been written in Ephesus. Is there any research to ...