Questions tagged [1-john]

Questions about John's first letter. It contains both warnings about false teachers and spiritual themes about Jesus Christ.

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How plausible is this alternate interpretation of 1 John 2:13-14?

At issue is why John is writing to the fathers in 1 John 2:13-14: γράφω ὑμῖν, πατέρες, ὅτι ἐγνώκατε τὸν ἀπʼ ἀρχῆς [...] ἔγραψα ὑμῖν, πατέρες, ὅτι ἐγνώκατε τὸν ἀπʼ ἀρχῆς I am writing | to you | ...
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What Scripture might support Bunyan? - "Christ, as Priest, continually intercedes; Christ, as Advocate, in case of great transgression, pleads"." [closed]

Context: I'm currently reading "Gentle and Lowly" by Dane Ortlund. On page 90 there is this quote by Ortlund: "Apparently, he [Christ] intercedes for us given our general sinfulness, ...
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What does John mean by "anointing" and how can such "anointing" teach us? 1 John 2:18-27

1 John 2:18-27 (ESV) 18 Children, it is the last hour, and as you have heard that antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have come. Therefore we know that it is the last hour. 19 They went out ...
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What is the significance of Christ being human?

I appreciated the ideas shared on this platform around the 'water and the blood' from 1 John 5. The text I refer to is: 1 John 5:6. This is he who came by water and blood—Jesus Christ; not by the ...
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In 1 John 4:8 is "Love" a feeling

I have heard the phrase: Love is not a feeling it an action; not a noun but a verb. In 1 John 4:8 Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. (I have bolded the love that I am ...
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2 votes
1 answer
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If God gives us enough grace so that we don't have to sin (1 Corinthians 10:13), then why do we still sin (1 John 1:8-10, 2:1-2)?

God is faithful - He always gives us enough grace so that we don't have to sin: 13 No temptation has overtaken you that is not common to man. God is faithful, and he will not let you be tempted ...
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How do we reconcile 1 John 5:18 with 1 Peter 5:8-9?

So we can be devoured by the devil to which we also suffer by the devils attacks, but we are also not touched by the devil? Q: How do we reconcile these 2 verses? “We know that no one who is born of ...
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1st John 1:1 “Word of Life” is this “Jesus” or the “Scripture”?

We read: “That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, concerning the Word of life— the life was ...
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Does special formatting come from ancient manuscripts?

In some translations, 1 John 2:12-14 is formatted like a poem, or a song. It made me wonder why. I see no footnotes to suggest it's a quote from another passage, so it occurred to me to ask whether ...
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Could (αγαθος) in Matthew 19:17 be explained with (δικαιον) in 1 John 2:1?

Matthew 19:17; Greek New Testament; 17 ο δε ειπεν αυτω τι με λεγεις αγαθον ουδεις αγαθος ει μη εις ο θεος ει δε θελεις εισελθειν εις την ζωην τηρησον τας εντολας Matthew 19:17; KJV; 17 And he said ...
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1 John 4, John 3; Could we conclude that the believers are of two kinds?

1 John 4:10; KJV; 10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins. 1 John 4:4-5; KJV; 4 Ye are of God, little children, and have ...
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1 John 1:9 - What is the significance of the usage ὁμολογέω (confess) in the context?

In the Gospels, μετανοέω (repent) is used. Are there contextual factors using the ὁμολογέω in 1 John? Are there any Scriptural examples to differentiate the two: μετανοέω and ὁμολογέω? Text: 1 John ...
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In Johannine Comma: Three are One, or Three in One, or Three in are?

In the Johannine Comma, i.e: 1John 5:7, the Greek texts which contain the trinity mention εν which means in, look: 1550 Stephanus New Testament: 7 οτι τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες εν τω ουρανω ο πατηρ ...
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Why might we say one of these is "better" than the other? 1. God protects him/auton ESV or 2. God keepeth himself/heauton KJB. 1 John 5:18

"We know that everyone who has been born of God does not keep on sinning, but he who was born of God protects him" 1 John 5:18 ESV him/auton Strong's 846. Possibly meaning-Christ born of ...
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Does "born" have the same meaning on the two occasions it occurs in 1 John 5:18?"

"We know that whoever is born of God does not sin; but he who has been born of God keeps himself, and the wicked one does not touch him." 1 John 5:18 NKJB. The word "born" occurs ...
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How do we interpret James 5:16 in light of 1 John 1:9?

James says: “So confess your sins to one another and pray for one another so that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous person has great effectiveness.” ‭‭James‬ ‭5:16‬ & 1st John 1:9 says: ...
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Why does John emphasize the keeping of the commandments in his letters?

More than seven times John refers to the keeping of the commandments,it seems there is a strong emphasis on keeping the commandments in the books of John 1 John 2:3-4 ESV And by this we know that we ...
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5 votes
7 answers
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What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’?

This following verse has me thinking… 1 JOHN 3:12 not as Cain who was of the wicked one and murdered his brother. [snip] What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’? [Edit] Clarification - this verse seems to ...
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Are we sons of God or are we still waiting to be adopted? How do we harmonize?

Paul says that we are awaiting adoption: 23 And not only the creation, but we ourselves, who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait eagerly for adoption as sons, the redemption ...
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Are the words "beginning" and "word" mentioned in 1John 2:7 the same as those found in John 1:1?

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God; John 1:1 (YLT) Brethren, a new command I write not to you, but an old command, that ye had from the beginning -- the ...
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Why does 1 John 4:16 switch from plural "we have come to know" to singular "and whoever abides"?

1 John 4:16 "So we have come to know and believe the love that God has for us. God is love, and whoever abides in love abides in God, and God abides in him". ESV. 1 John 14-17: "And we ...
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2 votes
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The evil one cannot harm (vs touch) them. NIV vs ESV

1 John 5:18 New International Version We know that anyone born of God does not continue to sin; the One who was born of God keeps them safe, and the evil one cannot harm them. English Standard ...
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19 votes
7 answers
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Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?

In 1 John 1:8, John says If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. And in chapter 3, verse 9, he says Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his ...
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13 votes
9 answers
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How are we to understand Jesus' words in Matthew 7:21-23, and how do they apply to us today?

Christ speaks some very harsh words in the Gospel of Matthew: Matthew 7:21-23: “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who ...
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What is That 'which' in, "That which was from the beginning..." 1 John 1:1

That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life— 2 the life was made ...
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4 votes
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Perfect love that casts out fear vs Fear of God - Are 1 John 4:18 and 2 Corinthians 7:1 talking about different concepts of fear?

1 John 4:18 (ESV): There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear. For fear has to do with punishment, and whoever fears has not been perfected in love. 2 Corinthians 7:1 (ESV): Since we ...
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5 votes
3 answers
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Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?

1 John 4:2 (ESV): 2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God, When I read this verse, my immediate impression is that of ...
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6 votes
3 answers
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Do the three nominative nouns in John 10:30 express an 'equivalence'?

εγω και ο πατηρ εν εσμεν [John 10:30 TR, undisputed] I and the Father one are [John 10:30 EGNT ¹] All three nouns 'I' 'Father' and 'one' are, here, nominative singular, as is the article. Thus there ...
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4 votes
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How should one understand John 14:1 AND 1John 5:1?

John 14:1:- “Let not your heart be troubled; you believe in God, believe ALSO in Me.” 1John 5:1:- “Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves Him who begot also ...
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1 answer
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No one has ever seen God; ἑώρακεν vs τεθέαται

John 1:18 New International Version No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known. has ever seen ἑώρακεν (...
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2 votes
1 answer
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What is the best way to translate Τεκνία in 1 John 2:1 and the other five times?

Τεκνία is the plural diminutive of τέκνον (child). diminutive adjective (14th century) 1 : indicating small size and sometimes the state or quality of being familiarly known, lovable, pitiable, or ...
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What is the meaning of tetheatai "has seen" [God] in 1 John 4:12?

This question is based on discussion in the comments on two separate questions here and here No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth in us, and his love is perfected in ...
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8 votes
6 answers
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How are we to test the spirits?

1 John 4:1-6 (NRSV) stresses the importance of testing the spirits, given that not all spirits come from God: Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from ...
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2 votes
3 answers
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Was the Capernaum spirit from God or from Satan?

Mark 1 New International Version 21 They went to Capernaum, and when the Sabbath came, Jesus went into the synagogue and began to teach. 22The people were amazed at his teaching, because he taught ...
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5 votes
5 answers
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You have overcome the evil one. Really?

Matthew 6:13 New International Version And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from the evil one. 1 John 2:14c I write to you, young men, because you are strong, and the word of God lives ...
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6 votes
4 answers
560 views

In 1 John 4:18, does "because fear hath punishment" mean, "He who fears will be punished"?

1John 4:18 ASV; There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love. Does "because fear hath punishment&...
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5 votes
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What is the emphasis of προς in 1 John 2:1 ('with' the Father)?

τεκνια μου ταυτα γραφω υμιν ινα μη αμαρτητε και εαν τις αμαρτη παρακλητον εχομεν προς τον πατερα ιησουν χριστον δικαιον [1 John 2:1 - TR (undisputed)] My little children, these things write I unto ...
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3 votes
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What does "his love" mean in 1 John 4:12?

1 John 4:12 ESV "No one has ever seen God; if we love one another, God abides in us and his love is perfected in us." Does "his love" here refer to: 1 John 4:9. His love for Jesus,...
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How could 'Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob' be living eternally in Heaven if they never believed the requirement in 1 John 5:5-13 to receive eternal life?

We read three statements in 1 John 5:5-13 that appear to contradict the teachings of Jesus the Messiah from Matthew 8:10-11 & Matthew 22:30-22 regarding requirements of receiving eternal life. In ...
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4 votes
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Translation of 1 John 5:16

I have a question regarding the translation of 1 John 5:16. In the verses below, I have highlighted the translated (added?) words I’m querying. Why does the NIV use ’you’ where the NKJV uses ’he’? [...
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1 vote
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1 John 4:17b In this world we are just like Him. But are we just like Jesus?

NIV 1 John 3:2b But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is. We shall be like him. Easy. Make sense. Then a chapter later in NIV 1 John 4:17b In this ...
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2 votes
1 answer
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Is unconditional love of God biblical? [closed]

1 John 4:9–10 “In this the love of God was made manifest among us, that God sent his only son into the world, so that we might live through him. In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he ...
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4 votes
1 answer
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In 1 John 5:8, is the reference to spirit, water, and blood an allusion to Jesus' crucifixion?

Is it reasonable to think that the 3 witnesses mentioned in 1 John 5:8, Spirit, Water, and Blood, refer back to the crucifixion? Specifically John 19:34-35 (NASB), 34But one of the soldiers pierced ...
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1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV) why is "Earth" not found? [duplicate]

1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV): For there are three that testify: the Spirit and the water and the blood; and these three agree. For there are three that testify: the Spirit, the water and ...
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2 votes
1 answer
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Does John use οὗτός at the end of his letter to form an inclusio to the beginning of his Gospel?

John begins the Gospel by describing the Word who was with God, came to earth, and returned to His Father: 1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was in ...
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2 answers
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(John 20) Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting with Christ

In the Gospel of John, Thomas plays a huge role compared to the other gospels. He seems to be present quite a bit, and as a leader. My question is: "Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting of Jesus ...
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Is ἐξ ( ἐκ,) " from" or "of" , or either -in 1 John 2:19?

How does it change the meaning of the verse - 1 John 2:19? What is the respective theological implication, if any? 1 John 2:19 KJV -"They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had ...
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2 votes
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What does "apestalken" mean in 1 John 4:14?

"the Father has sent [apestalken] his Son to be the Savior of the world", E.S.V. Some possibly relevant thoughts: "the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world": that ...
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-1 votes
1 answer
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Is there a relationship between 1 John 4:18 and Revelation 21:8?

1 John 4:18 (ASV): There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love. Revelation 21:8 (ASV): ...
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0 votes
2 answers
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In 1 John 1:5, is God literally "Light"?

"This is the message we have heard from Him and announce to you, that God is Light, and in Him there is no darkness at all." 1 John 1:5 NASB, bolls.life/NASB/62/1/5 Sorry for my English. And my ...
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