Questions tagged [1-john]
Questions about John's first letter. It contains both warnings about false teachers and spiritual themes about Jesus Christ.
112
questions
3
votes
4answers
89 views
Perfect love that casts out fear vs Fear of God - Are 1 John 4:18 and 2 Corinthians 7:1 talking about different concepts of fear?
1 John 4:18 (ESV):
There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear. For fear has to do with punishment, and whoever fears has not been perfected in love.
2 Corinthians 7:1 (ESV):
Since we ...
5
votes
2answers
594 views
Does “Jesus has come in the flesh” in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?
1 John 4:2 (ESV):
2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,
When I read this verse, my immediate impression is that of ...
6
votes
3answers
66 views
Do the three nominative nouns in John 10:30 express an 'equivalence'?
εγω και ο πατηρ εν εσμεν [John 10:30 TR, undisputed]
I and the Father one are [John 10:30 EGNT ¹]
All three nouns 'I' 'Father' and 'one' are, here, nominative singular, as is the article.
Thus there ...
4
votes
3answers
86 views
How should one understand John 14:1 AND 1John 5:1?
John 14:1:- “Let not your heart be troubled; you believe in God, believe ALSO in Me.”
1John 5:1:- “Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves Him who begot also ...
3
votes
1answer
69 views
No one has ever seen God; ἑώρακεν vs τεθέαται
John 1:18
New International Version
No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
has ever seen
ἑώρακεν (...
3
votes
1answer
40 views
What is the best way to translate Τεκνία in 1 John 2:1 and the other five times?
Τεκνία is the plural diminutive of τέκνον (child).
diminutive adjective
(14th century)
1 : indicating small size and sometimes the state or quality of being familiarly known, lovable, pitiable, or ...
5
votes
3answers
107 views
What is the meaning of tetheatai “has seen” [God] in 1 John 4:12?
This question is based on discussion in the comments on two separate questions here and here
No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth
in us, and his love is perfected in ...
7
votes
4answers
262 views
How are we to test the spirits?
1 John 4:1-6 (NRSV) stresses the importance of testing the spirits, given that not all spirits come from God:
Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from ...
2
votes
3answers
76 views
Was the Capernaum spirit from God or from Satan?
Mark 1
New International Version
21 They went to Capernaum, and when the Sabbath came, Jesus went into the synagogue and began to teach. 22The people were amazed at his teaching, because he taught ...
5
votes
5answers
1k views
You have overcome the evil one. Really?
Matthew 6:13
New International Version
And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from the evil one.
1 John 2:14c
I write to you, young men, because you are strong, and the word of God lives ...
6
votes
4answers
398 views
In 1 John 4:18, does “because fear hath punishment” mean, “He who fears will be punished”?
1John 4:18 ASV;
There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love.
Does "because fear hath punishment&...
5
votes
2answers
97 views
What is the emphasis of προς in 1 John 2:1 ('with' the Father)?
τεκνια μου ταυτα γραφω υμιν ινα μη αμαρτητε και εαν τις αμαρτη παρακλητον εχομεν προς τον πατερα ιησουν χριστον δικαιον [1 John 2:1 - TR (undisputed)]
My little children, these things write I unto ...
-3
votes
3answers
85 views
How could 'Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob' be living eternally in Heaven if they never believed the requirement in 1 John 5:5-13 to receive eternal life?
We read three statements in 1 John 5:5-13 that appear to contradict the teachings of Jesus the Messiah from Matthew 8:10-11 & Matthew 22:30-22 regarding requirements of receiving eternal life.
In ...
4
votes
4answers
246 views
Translation of 1 John 5:16
I have a question regarding the translation of 1 John 5:16. In the verses below, I have highlighted the translated (added?) words I’m querying.
Why does the NIV use ’you’ where the NKJV uses ’he’?
[...
2
votes
4answers
88 views
1 John 4:17b In this world we are just like Him. But are we just like Jesus?
NIV
1 John 3:2b
But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is.
We shall be like him. Easy. Make sense. Then a chapter later in
NIV 1 John 4:17b In this ...
2
votes
1answer
44 views
Is unconditional love of God biblical?
1 John 4:9–10
“In this the love of God was made manifest among us, that God sent his only son into the world, so that we might live through him. In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he ...
4
votes
1answer
297 views
In 1 John 5:8, is the reference to spirit, water, and blood an allusion to Jesus' crucifixion?
Is it reasonable to think that the 3 witnesses mentioned in 1 John 5:8, Spirit, Water, and Blood, refer back to the crucifixion? Specifically John 19:34-35 (NASB),
34But one of the soldiers pierced ...
0
votes
0answers
33 views
1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV) why is “Earth” not found? [duplicate]
1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV):
For there are three that testify:
the Spirit and the water and the blood; and these three agree.
For there are three that testify:
the Spirit, the water and ...
2
votes
1answer
57 views
Does John use οὗτός at the end of his letter to form an inclusio to the beginning of his Gospel?
John begins the Gospel by describing the Word who was with God, came to earth, and returned to His Father:
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was in ...
0
votes
2answers
577 views
(John 20) Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting with Christ
In the Gospel of John, Thomas plays a huge role compared to the other gospels. He seems to be present quite a bit, and as a leader. My question is: "Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting of Jesus ...
1
vote
1answer
46 views
Is ἐξ ( ἐκ,) “ from” or “of” , or either -in 1 John 2:19?
How does it change the meaning of the verse - 1 John 2:19?
What is the respective theological implication, if any?
1 John 2:19
KJV -"They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had ...
2
votes
1answer
80 views
What does “apestalken” mean in 1 John 4:14?
"the Father has sent [apestalken] his Son to be the Savior of the world", E.S.V.
Some possibly relevant thoughts:
"the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world":
that ...
-1
votes
1answer
47 views
Is there a relationship between 1 John 4:18 and Revelation 21:8?
1 John 4:18 (ASV):
There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love.
Revelation 21:8 (ASV):
...
0
votes
2answers
242 views
In 1 John 1:5, is God literally “Light”?
"This is the message we have heard from Him and announce to you, that God is Light, and in Him there is no darkness at all." 1 John 1:5 NASB, bolls.life/NASB/62/1/5
Sorry for my English. And my ...
2
votes
3answers
117 views
In 1 John 4:18, what is the punishment of fear?
IJn 4:18 (asv)
There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love.
Fear has punishment? What is that punishment
2
votes
1answer
48 views
Should ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) in 1 John 3:17 be interpreted as a subjective or objective genitive?
I see that different translations translate the Greek phrase ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) as either “God’s love” or “love of God.” There seems to be a big difference between the two. It seems ...
2
votes
2answers
217 views
How to reconcile 1 John 4:15 with Mathew 8:29?
The fourth chapter of 1 John talks about how we should test every spirit, for not every spirit is of God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. It says in verse 15:
1 John 4:15 ...
5
votes
6answers
493 views
What is the meaning of “is” in “He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love” in 1John 4v8? AV
To say something e.g. x "is" something else e.g. 5, is a way to explain x.
To say that a tower "is" tall may be just one of many features. The tower may also be square or round. i.e. one of many ...
2
votes
4answers
189 views
What is an exegetical understanding of ἀντίχριστ- / anti-chist?
The phrase "anti-christ" is specific to the works of the apostle John in 1John 2:18, 1John 2:22; 1John 4:3 and 2John 1:7.
These are the only places where the compound word and understanding of anti-...
-2
votes
1answer
148 views
Is 1 John 2:15-17 talking about this life or the after life?
1 John 2:15-17 (NIV): Do not love the world or anything in the world. If anyone loves the world, love for the Father is not in them. For everything in the world—the lust of the flesh, the lust of the ...
1
vote
1answer
57 views
In 1 John 2:17 what “world” does he say is passing away?
[1Jo 2:17 ESV] (17) And the world is passing away along with its desires, but whoever does the will of God abides forever.
[1Jo 2:17 mGNT] καὶ ὁ κόσμος παράγεται καὶ ἡ ἐπιθυμία αὐτοῦ ὁ δὲ ποιῶν τὸ ...
-1
votes
3answers
194 views
In 1 John 1:1 should it read “the word of life” or “the living message”?
Note: I am double-posting this from my own question on B-Greek for whomever would like to follow along or participate there.
mGNT 1 John 1:1-3
1 ὃ ἦν ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ...
3
votes
4answers
319 views
What's the meaning of brother in 1 John 2.9-11?
In 1 John 2.9-11, John uses adelphos, or brother. Researching that, I came across The Outline of Biblical Usage by Larry Pierce which says adelphos is sometimes used to mean countryman and co-...
2
votes
3answers
417 views
Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification
Before I can arrive at a conclusion, or even make comment on a recent question asked in Stack Christianity, I need clarification on the Greek text of two scriptures. The matter relates to both God the ...
-2
votes
1answer
84 views
Does 1 John 3:8-9 teach that a person can be entirely free from sin and sinning? [closed]
In the Scriptures we read:
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the ...
1
vote
8answers
3k views
Is 1st John 1:9 referring to Believers or Unbelievers?
I have heard excellent views for both sides of the coin on this topic, but I was curious as to what others thought about this particular verse. Is 1st John 1:9 referring to BELIEVERS or UNBELIEVERS?
...
4
votes
4answers
8k views
What does “pride of life” refer to in 1 John 2:16?
What does "pride of life" refer to in 1 John 2: 16?
For all that is in the world—the desires of the flesh and the desires of the eyes and pride of life—is not from the Father but is from the world. ...
2
votes
0answers
63 views
Why does St. John urge the believers to not love the same “world/humankind” (1 John 2:15) which God himself loves in John 3:16? [duplicate]
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that
whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting
life. (John 3:16 kjv)
Love not the world, neither the things ...
2
votes
2answers
313 views
What does “as Jesus did” mean in 1 John 2:6?
In 1 John 2:6 NIV, it says that
6 Whoever claims to live in him must live as Jesus did.
What is the meaning of this verse in general, but more specifically the part of living "as Jesus did"? Jesus ...
2
votes
3answers
308 views
Why is there extra text in the KJV of 1 John 5:7?
John 5:7 (KJV)
"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."
1 John 5:7 (NIV)
For there are three that testify:
...
2
votes
2answers
144 views
In 1 John 2:3, is εν τούτῳ (“by this”) an instrumental dative or locative dative?
Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. - 1 John 2:3 (NKJV)
I am new to Greek and I am not sure how to parse exactly the word this (Gk τούτῳ) whether it is locative dative ...
5
votes
1answer
261 views
Why did St. John change from αἰτεῖν to ἐρωτᾷν in his appeal? (1 John 5:14-16)
14 And this is the confidence that we have toward him, that if we ask anything according to his will he hears us. 15 And if we know that he hears us in whatever we ask, we know that we have the ...
5
votes
3answers
135 views
In 1 John 5:1 does “the one” refer to “God's child” or to “God's children”?
In my mother language Bible, 1 John 5:1 is referring to The Son (singular) by using capital H for "he". It's almost similar as read in the NIV version.
1 John 5:1 (NIV)Everyone who believes that ...
0
votes
1answer
46 views
In 1 John 2:5 what is meant by “his word”?
1Jn 2:3 And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his
commandments. 1Jn 2:4 He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his
commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. 1Jn 2:...
4
votes
6answers
12k views
To whom was the letter 1 John written?
I understand that 1 John was directed to Christians who were hit by the rise of Gnosticism. I also understand that the letter was believed to have been written in Ephesus.
Is there any research to ...
0
votes
4answers
159 views
Love outside of God? [closed]
Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. (1 John 4:8 NIV)
The reverse would be:
Whoever does love does know God, because God is love.
If every human being is created in the ...
3
votes
3answers
4k views
What is the root definition of Greek word teknia and paidia in 1st John 2 & 3?
In 1st John 2:1, the Greek word "teknia" is in the vocative case and is translated as Little children. Also in 1st John 2:12 the same Greek word is use again with the same grammar and is translated ...
1
vote
2answers
3k views
In 1 John 4:8 which Greek word is used for “love” and what kind of “love” does that indicate?
NIV 1 John 4:8
Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love.
Knowing that Greek has multiple words for love which sense of love is employed here in the last half of the verse?
2
votes
1answer
980 views
What does “the flesh” mean in 1 John 4:2
In various translations, 1 John 4:2 says:
New International Version
This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,...
2
votes
2answers
654 views
Is the “right” to become children of God two different ways people become children of God?
He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him. But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of ...
