Questions tagged [1-john]

Questions about John's first letter. It contains both warnings about false teachers and spiritual themes about Jesus Christ.

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Translation of 1 John 5:16

I have a question regarding the translation of 1 John 5:16. In the verses below, I have highlighted the translated (added?) words I’m querying. Why does the NIV use ’you’ where the NKJV uses ’he’? [...
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1 John 4:17b In this world we are just like Him. But are we just like Jesus?

NIV 1 John 3:2b But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is. We shall be like him. Easy. Make sense. Then a chapter later in NIV 1 John 4:17b In this ...
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Is unconditional love of God biblical?

1 John 4:9–10 “In this the love of God was made manifest among us, that God sent his only son into the world, so that we might live through him. In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he ...
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In 1 John 5:8, is the reference to spirit, water, and blood an allusion to Jesus' crucifixion?

Is it reasonable to think that the 3 witnesses mentioned in 1 John 5:8, Spirit, Water, and Blood, refer back to the crucifixion? Specifically John 19:34-35 (NASB), 34But one of the soldiers pierced ...
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1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV) why is “Earth” not found? [duplicate]

1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV): For there are three that testify: the Spirit and the water and the blood; and these three agree. For there are three that testify: the Spirit, the water and ...
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Does John use οὗτός at the end of his letter to form an inclusio to the beginning of his Gospel?

John begins the Gospel by describing the Word who was with God, came to earth, and returned to His Father: 1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was in ...
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(John 20) Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting with Christ

In the Gospel of John, Thomas plays a huge role compared to the other gospels. He seems to be present quite a bit, and as a leader. My question is: "Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting of Jesus ...
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Is ἐξ ( ἐκ,) “ from” or “of” , or either -in 1 John 2:19?

How does it change the meaning of the verse - 1 John 2:19? What is the respective theological implication, if any? 1 John 2:19 KJV -"They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had ...
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What does “apestalken” mean in 1 John 4:14?

"the Father has sent [apestalken] his Son to be the Savior of the world", E.S.V. Some possibly relevant thoughts: "the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world": that ...
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Is there a relationship between 1 John 4:18 and Revelation 21:8?

1 John 4:18 (ASV): There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love. Revelation 21:8 (ASV): ...
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In 1 John 1:5, is God literally “Light”?

"This is the message we have heard from Him and announce to you, that God is Light, and in Him there is no darkness at all." 1 John 1:5 NASB, bolls.life/NASB/62/1/5 Sorry for my English. And my ...
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In 1 John 4:18, what is the punishment of fear?

IJn 4:18 (asv) There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love. Fear has punishment? What is that punishment
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Should ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) in 1 John 3:17 be interpreted as a subjective or objective genitive?

I see that different translations translate the Greek phrase ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) as either “God’s love” or “love of God.” There seems to be a big difference between the two. It seems ...
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How to reconcile 1 John 4:15 with Mathew 8:29?

The fourth chapter of 1 John talks about how we should test every spirit, for not every spirit is of God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. It says in verse 15: 1 John 4:15 ...
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What is the meaning of “is” in “He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love” in 1John 4v8? AV

To say something e.g. x "is" something else e.g. 5, is a way to explain x. To say that a tower "is" tall may be just one of many features. The tower may also be square or round. i.e. one of many ...
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What is an exegetical understanding of ἀντίχριστ- / anti-chist?

The phrase "anti-christ" is specific to the works of the apostle John in 1John 2:18, 1John 2:22; 1John 4:3 and 2John 1:7. These are the only places where the compound word and understanding of anti-...
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Is 1 John 2:15-17 talking about this life or the after life?

1 John 2:15-17 (NIV): Do not love the world or anything in the world. If anyone loves the world, love for the Father is not in them. For everything in the world—the lust of the flesh, the lust of the ...
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In 1 John 2:17 what “world” does he say is passing away?

[1Jo 2:17 ESV] (17) And the world is passing away along with its desires, but whoever does the will of God abides forever. [1Jo 2:17 mGNT] καὶ ὁ κόσμος παράγεται καὶ ἡ ἐπιθυμία αὐτοῦ ὁ δὲ ποιῶν τὸ ...
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In 1 John 1:1 should it read “the word of life” or “the living message”?

Note: I am double-posting this from my own question on B-Greek for whomever would like to follow along or participate there. mGNT 1 John 1:1-3 1 ὃ ἦν ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ...
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What's the meaning of brother in 1 John 2.9-11?

In 1 John 2.9-11, John uses adelphos, or brother. Researching that, I came across The Outline of Biblical Usage by Larry Pierce which says adelphos is sometimes used to mean countryman and co-...
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Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification

Before I can arrive at a conclusion, or even make comment on a recent question asked in Stack Christianity, I need clarification on the Greek text of two scriptures. The matter relates to both God the ...
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Does 1 John 3:8-9 teach that a person can be entirely free from sin and sinning? [closed]

In the Scriptures we read: He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the ...
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Is 1st John 1:9 referring to Believers or Unbelievers?

I have heard excellent views for both sides of the coin on this topic, but I was curious as to what others thought about this particular verse. Is 1st John 1:9 referring to BELIEVERS or UNBELIEVERS? ...
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What does “pride of life” refer to in 1 John 2:16?

What does "pride of life" refer to in 1 John 2: 16? For all that is in the world—the desires of the flesh and the desires of the eyes and pride of life—is not from the Father but is from the world. ...
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Why does St. John urge the believers to not love the same “world/humankind” (1 John 2:15) which God himself loves in John 3:16? [duplicate]

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (John 3:16 kjv) Love not the world, neither the things ...
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What does “as Jesus did” mean in 1 John 2:6?

In 1 John 2:6 NIV, it says that 6 Whoever claims to live in him must live as Jesus did. What is the meaning of this verse in general, but more specifically the part of living "as Jesus did"? Jesus ...
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216 views

Why is there extra text in the KJV of 1 John 5:7?

John 5:7 (KJV) "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." 1 John 5:7 (NIV) For there are three that testify: ...
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In 1 John 2:3, is εν τούτῳ (“by this”) an instrumental dative or locative dative?

Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. - 1 John 2:3 (NKJV) I am new to Greek and I am not sure how to parse exactly the word this (Gk τούτῳ) whether it is locative dative ...
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Why did St. John change from αἰτεῖν to ἐρωτᾷν in his appeal? (1 John 5:14-16)

14 And this is the confidence that we have toward him, that if we ask anything according to his will he hears us. 15 And if we know that he hears us in whatever we ask, we know that we have the ...
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In 1 John 5:1 does “the one” refer to “God's child” or to “God's children”?

In my mother language Bible, 1 John 5:1 is referring to The Son (singular) by using capital H for "he". It's almost similar as read in the NIV version. 1 John 5:1 (NIV)Everyone who believes that ...
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In 1 John 2:5 what is meant by “his word”?

1Jn 2:3  And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments.  1Jn 2:4  He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.  1Jn 2:...
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To whom was the letter 1 John written?

I understand that 1 John was directed to Christians who were hit by the rise of Gnosticism. I also understand that the letter was believed to have been written in Ephesus. Is there any research to ...
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Love outside of God? [closed]

Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. (1 John 4:8 NIV) The reverse would be: Whoever does love does know God, because God is love. If every human being is created in the ...
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What is the root definition of Greek word teknia and paidia in 1st John 2 & 3?

In 1st John 2:1, the Greek word "teknia" is in the vocative case and is translated as Little children. Also in 1st John 2:12 the same Greek word is use again with the same grammar and is translated ...
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In 1 John 4:8 which Greek word is used for “love” and what kind of “love” does that indicate?

NIV 1 John 4:8 Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. Knowing that Greek has multiple words for love which sense of love is employed here in the last half of the verse?
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What does “the flesh” mean in 1 John 4:2

In various translations, 1 John 4:2 says: New International Version This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,...
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Is the “right” to become children of God two different ways people become children of God?

He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him. But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of ...
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What is the proper understanding of παιδία in 1 John?

"Children" and/or "little children" are found 13 times in 1 John. Seven (2:1, 12, 28;3:7, 18; 4:4; 5:21) are the word τεκνίον, which is the diminutive of τέκνον which is used four times (3:1, 2, 10; 5:...
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Is the use of ἀγάπη (agape) and ἀγαπάω (agapao) evidence the Gospel and Letters of John were written from Ephesus?

John reports Jesus gave a new command which would identify followers of Jesus Christ: A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love (ἀγαπᾶτε) one another; as I have loved (ἠγάπησα) you, that ye ...
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In John 1:29, is there a “the sin” of the world?

John the Baptist said Jesus would take away the sin of the world: On the next day he sees Jesus coming toward him. And he says, “Look— the Lamb of God, the One taking-away the sin of the world. (John ...
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What factors bear on the authenticity of Χριστοῦ in 1 John 1:7?

The word “Christ” is absent in most modern translations of 1 John 1:7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus his Son cleanses ...
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Discerning or evaluating prophesies

1 Corinthians 14:29 NKJV) 29 Let two or three prophets speak, and let the others judge. 1 Thessalonians 5:19-22 (NKJV) 19 Do not quench the Spirit. 20 Do not despise prophecies. 21 Test all ...
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The significance of “knowing all things” in the Johannine literature

[Regarding the Lord Jesus Christ] in John 16:30, it is written, 30 Now are we sure that thou knowest all things, and needest not that any man should ask thee: by this we believe that thou camest ...
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Does the Epistle 1 John state that fellowship with the Father and His Son, Jesus Christ is the same as fellowship with God?

The early church dealt with challenges to the true nature of Jesus Christ, such as Gnosticism [Gnosticism] and Arianism [Arianism] which attacked or undermined both the Incarnation of God and the ...
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Is 1 John 5:18 is “does not sin” an assertion that *saints don't sin* or that *saints are not to sin*?

1 John 5:18 We know that everyone who has been born of God does not keep on sinning I don't understand the verse, because I myself wonder "how do people know that someone is born of God or not ?...
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In 1 John 1:1, why is the relative pronoun declined in the neuter gender?

The Greek text of 1 John 1:1–2 according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ ὃ ἦν ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ἡμῶν ὃ ἐθεασάμεθα καὶ αἱ χεῖρες ἡμῶν ἐψηλάφησαν περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ...
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“He” in 1 John 1:9

1 John 1:9 says this: If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. (ESV) Who is "he"? I am unsure whether it is Jesus or the ...
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In 1 John 4:1, what is the relationship between the “false prophets” and “the breath/spirit”?

In 1 John 4:1, what is the relationship between the "false prophets" and "the breath/spirit"? It seems that the translations disagree: New International Version Dear friends, do not believe every ...
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4answers
153 views

In 1 John 4:3-4, in what sense is John using the word KOSMOS?

The passage seems to contrast a man in the secular order with a man inside the Christian community: KJV 1Jn 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not ...
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In 1 John 4:3-4, who or what is the “he” that is in the world and in what sense?

While verse 4 is popularly believed to be a the Devil, it is actually referring to the antichrist, who was expected, came and hit the start button on the final hour: KJV 1Jn 4:3 And every spirit ...