Questions tagged [1-john]
Questions about John's first letter. It contains both warnings about false teachers and spiritual themes about Jesus Christ.
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In 1 John 2:3, is εν τούτῳ (“by this”) an instrumental dative or locative dative?
Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. - 1 John 2:3 (NKJV)
I am new to Greek and I am not sure how to parse exactly the word this (Gk τούτῳ) whether it is locative dative ...
3
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1answer
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Why did St. John change from αἰτεῖν to ἐρωτᾷν in his appeal? (1 John 5:14-16)
14 And this is the confidence that we have toward him, that if we ask anything according to his will he hears us. 15 And if we know that he hears us in whatever we ask, we know that we have the ...
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In 1 John 5:1 does “the one” refer to “God's child” or to “God's children”?
In my mother language Bible, 1 John 5:1 is referring to The Son (singular) by using capital H for "he". It's almost similar as read in the NIV version.
1 John 5:1 (NIV)Everyone who believes that ...
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1answer
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In 1 John 2:5 what is meant by “his word”?
1Jn 2:3 And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his
commandments. 1Jn 2:4 He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his
commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him. 1Jn 2:...
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3answers
312 views
To whom was the letter 1 John written?
I understand that 1 John was directed to Christians who were hit by the rise of Gnosticism. I also understand that the letter was believed to have been written in Ephesus.
Is there any research to ...
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4answers
111 views
Love outside of God? [closed]
Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. (1 John 4:8 NIV)
The reverse would be:
Whoever does love does know God, because God is love.
If every human being is created in the ...
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2answers
344 views
What is the root definition of Greek word teknia and paidia in 1st John 2 & 3?
In 1st John 2:1, the Greek word "teknia" is in the vocative case and is translated as Little children. Also in 1st John 2:12 the same Greek word is use again with the same grammar and is translated ...
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2answers
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In 1 John 4:8 which Greek word is used for “love” and what kind of “love” does that indicate?
NIV 1 John 4:8
Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love.
Knowing that Greek has multiple words for love which sense of love is employed here in the last half of the verse?
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1answer
299 views
What does “the flesh” mean in 1 John 4:2
In various translations, 1 John 4:2 says:
New International Version
This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is ...
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3answers
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Why does Paul say he wasn't sent by men?
In Galatians 1:1, Paul says:
Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead;)
What does Paul mean by he wasn't sent by man, ...
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2answers
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Is the “right” to become children of God two different ways people become children of God?
He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him. But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of ...
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1answer
360 views
Is “children” or “little children” the best understanding for παιδία in 1 John?
Twice John uses the word παιδία:
I am writing to you, fathers,
because you know him who is from the beginning.
I am writing to you, young men,
because you have overcome the evil one.
...
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1answer
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Is the use of ἀγάπη (agape) and ἀγαπάω (agapao) evidence the Gospel and Letters of John were written from Ephesus?
John reports Jesus gave a new command which would identify followers of Jesus Christ:
A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love (ἀγαπᾶτε) one another; as I have loved (ἠγάπησα) you, that ye ...
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6answers
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Is there a “The sin” of the world?
On the next day he sees Jesus coming toward him. And he says, “Look— the Lamb of God, the One taking-away the sin of the world. (John 1:29 DLNT)
Τῇ ἐπαύριον βλέπει τὸν Ἰησοῦν ἐρχόμενον πρὸς αὐτὸν ...
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1answer
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What factors bear on the authenticity of Χριστοῦ in 1 John 1:7?
The word “Christ” is absent in most modern translations of 1 John 1:7
But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus his Son ...
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1answer
41 views
Discerning or evaluating prophesies
1 Corinthians 14:29 NKJV)
29 Let two or three prophets speak, and let the others judge.
1 Thessalonians 5:19-22 (NKJV)
19 Do not quench the Spirit. 20 Do not despise prophecies. 21 Test all ...
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4answers
313 views
The significance of “knowing all things” in the Johannine literature
[Regarding the Lord Jesus Christ] in John 16:30, it is written,
30 Now are we sure that thou knowest all things, and needest not that any man should ask thee: by this we believe that thou camest ...
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1answer
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Does the Epistle 1 John state that fellowship with the Father and His Son, Jesus Christ is the same as fellowship with God?
The early church dealt with challenges to the true nature of Jesus Christ, such as Gnosticism [Gnosticism] and Arianism [Arianism] which attacked or undermined both the Incarnation of God and the ...
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3answers
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Is 1 John 5:18 is “does not sin” an assertion that *saints don't sin* or that *saints are not to sin*?
1 John 5:18
We know that everyone who has been born of God does not keep on
sinning
I don't understand the verse, because I myself wonder "how do people know that someone is born of God or not ?...
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3answers
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In 1 John 1:1, why is the relative pronoun declined in the neuter gender?
The Greek text of 1 John 1:1–2 according to the Textus Receptus states,
Αʹ ὃ ἦν ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ἡμῶν ὃ ἐθεασάμεθα καὶ αἱ χεῖρες ἡμῶν ἐψηλάφησαν περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ...
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3answers
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“He” in 1 John 1:9
1 John 1:9 says this:
If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. (ESV)
Who is "he"? I am unsure whether it is Jesus or the ...
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1answer
55 views
In 1 John 4:1, what is the relationship between the “false prophets” and “the breath/spirit”?
In 1 John 4:1, what is the relationship between the "false prophets" and "the breath/spirit"? It seems that the translations disagree:
New International Version Dear friends, do not believe every
...
0
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1answer
55 views
In 1 John 4:3-4, in what sense is John using the word KOSMOS?
The passage seems to contrast a man in the secular order with a man inside the Christian community:
KJV 1Jn 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is
come in the flesh is not ...
0
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1answer
34 views
In 1 John 4:3-4, who or what is the “he” that is in the world and in what sense?
While verse 4 is popularly believed to be a the Devil, it is actually referring to the antichrist, who was expected, came and hit the start button on the final hour:
KJV 1Jn 4:3 And every spirit ...
2
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3answers
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“went out from us” and “belong to us” in 1 John 2:19?
1 John 2:19
They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us. For if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us; but their going showed that none of them belonged to us.
...
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3answers
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When (or how) did Jesus say: “God is light and in Him is no darkness at all?”
The introduction of 1 John states:
This is the message which we have heard from Him and declare to you... (1:5 NKJV)
The writer states they heard a message from Jesus and are now declaring it to ...
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2answers
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Why is the position of the verse marker of 1 John 2:14 inconsistent?
i.e.
NASB: I have written to you, children, because you know the Father. 14I have written to you, fathers,
HCSB: 14I have written to you, children,
because you have come to know the ...
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3answers
98 views
Is 1 John 2:8 a reference to 2 Thessalonians 2:3?
In 2 Thessalonians Paul seems to say that it can't possibly be the last hour because prior to the return of Christ there must be a rebellion:
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (NIV) Don’t let anyone
deceive ...
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3answers
678 views
What is the new commandment in the letter of 1 John?
The writer of 1 John uses repetition throughout the letter. Sometimes the repetition is also characterized by a change of tense. What is the meaning of the shift from present to aorist in 1 John 2:12-...
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3answers
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Is the difference between τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν in John and τὸν ἀληθινὸν θεὸν in 1 John based on the personal fellowship Jesus has with The Father?
The night before He died Jesus prayed to the Father:
And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. (John 17:3)1
John 17:3: αὕτη δέ ἐστιν ...
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2answers
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What does γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ Θεοῦ (born from out of God) mean in 1 John 3:9 and 5:4?
"Whosoever is born (γεγεννημένος) of (ἐκ: out from) God (τοῦ Θεοῦ) doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born (γεγεννημένος) of (ἐκ: out from) God (τοῦ ...
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1answer
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Is chapter 2 of 1 John patterned after the first 3 chapters of Revelation?
The letter of 1 John contains a unique structure:
12 I write to you, little children,
Because your sins are forgiven you for His name’s sake.
13 I write to you, fathers,
Because you ...
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4answers
153 views
What are the idols and who are the little children?
The letter of 1 John comes to what seems to be an abrupt ending. Yet in the context of the entire letter is examined, the ending seems to be purposeful :
Chapter 1 - Introudction
My little ...
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3answers
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Why Is There An Apparent Contradiction Between 1 Corin 11: 28-32 and 1 John 3:9? [closed]
1 John 3:9 says:
“No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in them; they cannot go on sinning, because they have been born of God.” (NIV)
The KJV says ‘cannot sin’...
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0answers
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Is 1 John 3:8-9 saying that it's impossible for Christians to sin? [duplicate]
1 John 3:9 says:
"Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God." (NKJV)
The verse appears to say that it is IMPOSSIBLE ...
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2answers
586 views
Antichrist, Man of Lawlessness, Beast of Revelation 13
It is generally assumed that the antichrist, the man of lawlessness, and the beast in Revelation 13 all refer to the same end time enemy of God.
What is the basis for this assumption?
Are there ...
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4answers
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What is John saying in 1 John 4:8?
1 John 4:8 ESV
Anyone who does not love does not know God, because God is love.
Nestle GNT 1904
ὁ μὴ ἀγαπῶν οὐκ ἔγνω τὸν Θεόν, ὅτι ὁ Θεὸς ἀγάπη ἐστίν.
Tischendorf 8th Edition
ὁ μὴ ἀγαπῶν ...
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1answer
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What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?
1 John 4:8 reads in the NIV,
Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love.
However this translation reverses the order of the words of the second clause in the original Greek:
...
4
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1answer
315 views
In 1 John 2:27, what is the meaning of the phrase «τὸ χρίσμα»?
In 1 John 2:27, it is written,
27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and ...
13
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3answers
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Why Does The Thought Of 1 John Flow The Way It Does?
Following "Tests Of Life" (Robert Law), many have identified that John is following a circular or spiralling line of thought in 1 John by initially stating several key topics and then revisiting them ...
6
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1answer
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What is the justification for the NASB translators capitalizing “Word” in 1 John 1:1?
In John's gospel introduction, Jesus is presented as the incarnate Word and so capitalizing Word there is fitting.
In 1 John 1:1, it seems clear that the 'word' is the message about the Life, and ...
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3answers
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1st John 2:12-14: little children, young men and fathers
I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven
you for his name's sake. I write unto you, fathers, because ye
have known him that is from the beginning. I write unto you, young
...
4
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2answers
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What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)?
What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)?
1 John 3.9: Πᾶς ὁ γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἁμαρτίαν οὐ ποιεῖ, ὅτι σπέρμα αὐτοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ μένει, καὶ οὐ δύναται ἁμαρτάνειν,...
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2answers
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What are the arguments for and against Johannine Comma?
There have been many debates regarding the reliability of the Johannine Comma, a verse in 1 John which many textual critics do not think is authentic. Assuming the verse itself is authentic, what are ...
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1answer
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Was 1 John a combination of Letters/Lessons?
Many times throughout 1 John the author starts a paragraph with something like "Dear friends, ..." or "Dear children, ..."
After thinking about it I'm wondering if this is a combination of short ...
5
votes
2answers
280 views
Why is the only use of the word antichrist (G500) in 1st and 2nd John?
Using Strong's dictionary the only reference to the word antichrist for G500 is in 1st and 2nd John.
1 John 2:18
Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that antichrist shall ...
3
votes
3answers
339 views
What are the interpretive options in 1 John 5:2?
Love for God is determined by love for one another: Throughout 1 John the author repeatedly says that love for God's people is the proof that a person truly loves God. If you truly love God you will ...
13
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3answers
1k views
We shall be like him because we shall see him as he is?
1 John 3:2:
Ἀγαπητοί νῦν τέκνα θεοῦ ἐσμεν, καὶ οὔπω ἐφανερώθη τί ἐσόμεθα. οἴδαμεν ὅτι ἐὰν φανερωθῇ, ὅμοιοι αὐτῷ ἐσόμεθα, ὅτι ὀψόμεθα αὐτὸν, καθώς ἐστιν. (UBS5)
Beloved, we are God's children ...
5
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1answer
278 views
Translation of 1 John 3:2
I recently ran across a proposed alternative translation of 1 John 3:2. I provide here the NA28 (with punctuation omitted for the sake of ignoring the editors’ interpretive opinion), the ESV (because ...
6
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3answers
639 views
“Convince our conscience” or “reassure our heart” in 1 John 3:19?
1 John 3:19:
And by this we will know that we are of the truth and will convince our conscience in his presence, (NET)
By this we shall know that we are of the truth and reassure our heart ...
