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Questions tagged [1-john]

Questions about John's first letter. It contains both warnings about false teachers and spiritual themes about Jesus Christ.

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Is there any way to know which Bible version is correct about 1 John 5:7-8?

Some Bible versions say that there are three witnesses in heaven and that is The Father, The Son and The Spirit. 1 John 5:7-8 there are three witnesses in heaven: the Father, the Word and the Holy ...
Dong Li's user avatar
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8 votes
5 answers
716 views

Why did the cosmos (1 John 2:2) require propitiation?

... he is a propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the whole world, [Young's Literal, 1862, 1 John 2:2] ου .. περι.. των.. ημετερων.. δε μονον.. αλλα και περι ολου του κοσμου ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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1 vote
0 answers
935 views

How does one try a spirit? [duplicate]

1 John 4:1 Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world. How does one try a spirit?
RHPclass79's user avatar
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How is this passage written in the original language & how should it be interpreted?

1 John 5:20 And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us an understanding, that we may know Him who is true; and we are in Him who is true, in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God ...
Tesfaye Wolde's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
351 views

1 John 1:7—Does "fellowship with one another" require walking in the light?

1 John 1:7 reads (NKJV, emphasis added): But if we walk in the light as He is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus Christ His Son cleanses us from all sin. I've ...
The Editor's user avatar
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4 votes
5 answers
690 views

What does “the evil one does not touch him” mean in 1 John 5:18?

1 John 5:18 NASB “We know that no one who is born of God sins; but He who was born of God keeps him, and the evil one does not touch him.” ‭‭ What is the meaning of “the evil one does not touch him”?...
Lilias Carmichael's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
59 views

How does God give life to a Christian who sins according to 1 John 5:16?

1 John 5:16 NASB “If anyone sees his brother committing a sin not leading to death, he shall ask and God will for him give life to those who commit sin not leading to death. There is a sin leading to ...
Lilias Carmichael's user avatar
5 votes
5 answers
1k views

What is the difference between walking in darkness and sinning according to 1 John?

1 John 1:6-7 NASB 6 If we say that we have fellowship with Him and yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not practice the truth; 7 but if we walk in the Light as He Himself is in the Light, we have ...
Lilias Carmichael's user avatar
3 votes
3 answers
172 views

Can "we confess our sins" (1 John 1:9) in a general manner?

Can we be forgiven of things we don't presently know are sinful? In 1 John 1:9, we're told the following (NKJV, emphasis added): If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins ...
The Editor's user avatar
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Why does the King James Bible have the words "of God" in 1 John 3:16 whereas most translations do not have the words "of God" included?

1 John 3:16 KJB Hereby perceive we the love of God, because he laid down his life for us: and we ought to lay down our lives for the brethren.
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
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Is πνεῦμα ὁ θεός, "God is Spirit" a multivalent phrase?

In two later New Testament writings we find different explicit statements about God: God is Spirit... (John 4:24); ...God is light... (1 John 1:5); ...God is love (1 John 4:8, 16). God is Spirit: ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar
-4 votes
2 answers
150 views

Why is 1 John 5:7 a trinitarian verse? [closed]

First up, this is not about whether the verse is an addition or not. Let's assume for a moment it is not and has sufficient authenticity to remain. For there are three that bear record in heaven, the ...
Steve's user avatar
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5 answers
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In this particular verse and context, what does “overcome the world” mean here in 1 John 5:4? Sin? Godless system?

“For whatever is born of God overcomes the world. And this is the victory that has overcome the world—our faith. Who is he who overcomes the world, but he who believes that Jesus is the Son of God?” ‭‭...
Cork88's user avatar
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1 vote
2 answers
86 views

1 Jn. 2:6 reports that someone walked, is this someone God? The Father, Jesus or both in one person?

"He that saith he abideth in him ought himself also so to walk, even as he walked." (1 Jn. 2:6 KJV)
Betho's's user avatar
5 votes
3 answers
350 views

How does "we have no sin" 1 John 1:8 compare with "we have not sinned" 1 John 1:10?

1 John 1:8 "If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us." 1 John 1:10 "If we say we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.&...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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11 votes
7 answers
4k views

Is "God is light" more than metaphor in 1 John 1:5?

1 John 1:5 states that God is light - but Genesis 1:3 describes God creating light. Obviously God cannot create himself; nor does his nature change. I see a few options here, and I'm wondering which, ...
Christopher Good's user avatar
2 votes
3 answers
694 views

How do we reconcile Matthew 6:14-15 with 1 John 2:1?

The verses in dispute: “For if you forgive others for their transgressions, your heavenly Father will also forgive you. But if you do not forgive others, then your Father will not forgive your ...
Cork88's user avatar
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Does it follow from John 17:3 that knowing God alone cannot give eternal life? What then is the need for the adjectives "The only true"?

Joh 17:3 NET2 Now this is eternal life – that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you sent. What is the meaning of the term "The only True God"? When this is answered, ...
Faith Mendel's user avatar
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6 votes
13 answers
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Who is the True God and Eternal Life?

1Jn 5:20 KJV And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the ...
Faith Mendel's user avatar
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2 votes
1 answer
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Why does ESV put "you know" for "egnokate" but "you have overcome" for "nenikekate" in 1 John 2:13?

1 John 2:13 ESV "I am writing to you, fathers, because you know him who is from the beginning. I am writing to you, young men, because you have overcome the evil one. I write to you, children, ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
195 views

1 John 5: 13 - What does "these things" refer to that relates to "you may know that you have eternal life" - assurance of salvation?

The premise of our assurance of salvation is: "All who believe in Jesus Christ are saved. I Believe in Jesus Christ. Therefore, I am saved." When we say "I know am saved because I ...
Sam's user avatar
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0 votes
1 answer
32 views

1 John 2:19b - What might become plain, the origin? The state? Or the origin and original state of "they?

1 John 2:19 - They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would have continued with us. But they went out, that it might become plain that they all are not of us.(...
Sam's user avatar
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4 votes
1 answer
314 views

How plausible is this alternate interpretation of 1 John 2:13-14?

At issue is why John is writing to the fathers in 1 John 2:13-14: ἔγραψα ὑμῖν, πατέρες, ὅτι ἐγνώκατε τὸν ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς· I am writing | to you | fathers | because | you have known | the | from | (the) ...
Robert's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
62 views

What Scripture might support Bunyan? - "Christ, as Priest, continually intercedes; Christ, as Advocate, in case of great transgression, pleads"." [closed]

Context: I'm currently reading "Gentle and Lowly" by Dane Ortlund. On page 90 there is this quote by Ortlund: "Apparently, he [Christ] intercedes for us given our general sinfulness, ...
David Rogers's user avatar
1 vote
1 answer
86 views

What does John mean by "anointing" and how can such "anointing" teach us? 1 John 2:18-27

1 John 2:18-27 (ESV) 18 Children, it is the last hour, and as you have heard that antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have come. Therefore we know that it is the last hour. 19 They went out ...
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2 votes
6 answers
174 views

What is the significance of Christ being human? [closed]

I appreciated the ideas shared on this platform around the 'water and the blood' from 1 John 5. The text I refer to is: 1 John 5:6. This is he who came by water and blood—Jesus Christ; not by the ...
Greg's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
395 views

In 1 John 4:8 is "Love" a feeling

I have heard the phrase: Love is not a feeling it an action; not a noun but a verb. In 1 John 4:8 Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. (I have bolded the love that I am ...
Kyle Johansen's user avatar
2 votes
1 answer
184 views

If God gives us enough grace so that we don't have to sin (1 Corinthians 10:13), then why do we still sin (1 John 1:8-10, 2:1-2)?

God is faithful - He always gives us enough grace so that we don't have to sin: 13 No temptation has overtaken you that is not common to man. God is faithful, and he will not let you be tempted ...
user avatar
0 votes
3 answers
155 views

How do we reconcile 1 John 5:18 with 1 Peter 5:8-9?

So we can be devoured by the devil to which we also suffer by the devils attacks, but we are also not touched by the devil? Q: How do we reconcile these 2 verses? “We know that no one who is born of ...
Cork88's user avatar
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2 votes
4 answers
163 views

1st John 1:1 “Word of Life” is this “Jesus” or the “Scripture”?

We read: “That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, concerning the Word of life— the life was ...
Cork88's user avatar
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0 votes
1 answer
31 views

Does special formatting come from ancient manuscripts?

In some translations, 1 John 2:12-14 is formatted like a poem, or a song. It made me wonder why. I see no footnotes to suggest it's a quote from another passage, so it occurred to me to ask whether ...
GodWords's user avatar
0 votes
1 answer
55 views

Could (αγαθος) in Matthew 19:17 be explained with (δικαιον) in 1 John 2:1?

Matthew 19:17; Greek New Testament; 17 ο δε ειπεν αυτω τι με λεγεις αγαθον ουδεις αγαθος ει μη εις ο θεος ει δε θελεις εισελθειν εις την ζωην τηρησον τας εντολας Matthew 19:17; KJV; 17 And he said ...
salah's user avatar
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1 vote
2 answers
133 views

1 John 4, John 3; Could we conclude that the believers are of two kinds?

1 John 4:10; KJV; 10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins. 1 John 4:4-5; KJV; 4 Ye are of God, little children, and have ...
salah's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
703 views

1 John 1:9 - What is the significance of the usage ὁμολογέω (confess) in the context?

In the Gospels, μετανοέω (repent) is used. Are there contextual factors using the ὁμολογέω in 1 John? Are there any Scriptural examples to differentiate the two: μετανοέω and ὁμολογέω? Text: 1 John ...
Sam's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
613 views

In Johannine Comma: Three are One, or Three in One, or Three in are?

In the Johannine Comma, i.e: 1John 5:7, the Greek texts which contain the trinity mention εν which means in, look: 1550 Stephanus New Testament: 7 οτι τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες εν τω ουρανω ο πατηρ ...
salah's user avatar
  • 3,995
2 votes
1 answer
78 views

Why might we say one of these is "better" than the other? 1. God protects him/auton ESV or 2. God keepeth himself/heauton KJB. 1 John 5:18

"We know that everyone who has been born of God does not keep on sinning, but he who was born of God protects him" 1 John 5:18 ESV him/auton Strong's 846. Possibly meaning-Christ born of ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
73 views

Does "born" have the same meaning on the two occasions it occurs in 1 John 5:18?"

"We know that whoever is born of God does not sin; but he who has been born of God keeps himself, and the wicked one does not touch him." 1 John 5:18 NKJB. The word "born" occurs ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
  • 9,877
0 votes
1 answer
245 views

How do we interpret James 5:16 in light of 1 John 1:9?

James says: “So confess your sins to one another and pray for one another so that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous person has great effectiveness.” ‭‭James‬ ‭5:16‬ & 1st John 1:9 says: ...
Cork88's user avatar
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3 votes
4 answers
414 views

Why does John emphasize the keeping of the commandments in his letters?

More than seven times John refers to the keeping of the commandments,it seems there is a strong emphasis on keeping the commandments in the books of John 1 John 2:3-4 ESV And by this we know that we ...
collen ndhlovu's user avatar
5 votes
7 answers
3k views

What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’?

This following verse has me thinking… 1 JOHN 3:12 not as Cain who was of the wicked one and murdered his brother. [snip] What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’? [Edit] Clarification - this verse seems to ...
Dave's user avatar
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4 votes
6 answers
1k views

Are we sons of God or are we still waiting to be adopted? How do we harmonize?

Paul says that we are awaiting adoption: 23 And not only the creation, but we ourselves, who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait eagerly for adoption as sons, the redemption ...
Austin's user avatar
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3 votes
3 answers
172 views

Are the words "beginning" and "word" mentioned in 1John 2:7 the same as those found in John 1:1?

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God; John 1:1 (YLT) Brethren, a new command I write not to you, but an old command, that ye had from the beginning -- the ...
Alex Balilo's user avatar
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3 votes
2 answers
80 views

Why does 1 John 4:16 switch from plural "we have come to know" to singular "and whoever abides"?

1 John 4:16 "So we have come to know and believe the love that God has for us. God is love, and whoever abides in love abides in God, and God abides in him". ESV. 1 John 14-17: "And we ...
C. Stroud's user avatar
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2 votes
3 answers
287 views

The evil one cannot harm (vs touch) them. NIV vs ESV

1 John 5:18 New International Version We know that anyone born of God does not continue to sin; the One who was born of God keeps them safe, and the evil one cannot harm them. English Standard ...
user avatar
19 votes
7 answers
7k views

Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?

In 1 John 1:8, John says If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. And in chapter 3, verse 9, he says Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his ...
Gonçalo Peres's user avatar
14 votes
13 answers
3k views

How are we to understand Jesus' words in Matthew 7:21-23, and how do they apply to us today?

Christ speaks some very harsh words in the Gospel of Matthew: Matthew 7:21-23: “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who ...
Xeno's user avatar
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3 votes
4 answers
264 views

What is That 'which' in, "That which was from the beginning..." 1 John 1:1

That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life— 2 the life was made ...
Steve's user avatar
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4 votes
4 answers
2k views

Perfect love that casts out fear vs Fear of God - Are 1 John 4:18 and 2 Corinthians 7:1 talking about different concepts of fear?

1 John 4:18 (ESV): There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear. For fear has to do with punishment, and whoever fears has not been perfected in love. 2 Corinthians 7:1 (ESV): Since we ...
user avatar
7 votes
3 answers
1k views

Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?

1 John 4:2 (ESV): 2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God, When I read this verse, my immediate impression is that of ...
user avatar
6 votes
3 answers
188 views

Do the three nominative nouns in John 10:30 express an 'equivalence'?

εγω και ο πατηρ εν εσμεν [John 10:30 TR, undisputed] I and the Father one are [John 10:30 EGNT ¹] All three nouns 'I' 'Father' and 'one' are, here, nominative singular, as is the article. Thus there ...
Nigel J's user avatar
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