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Questions tagged [1-john]

Questions about John's first letter. It contains both warnings about false teachers and spiritual themes about Jesus Christ.

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In 1 John 1:1 should it read “the word of life” or “the living message”?

Note: I am double-posting this from my own question on B-Greek for whomever would like to follow along or participate there. mGNT 1 John 1:1-3 1 ὃ ἦν ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ...
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What's the meaning of brother in 1 John 2.9-11?

In 1 John 2.9-11, John uses adelphos, or brother. Researching that, I came across The Outline of Biblical Usage by Larry Pierce which says adelphos is sometimes used to mean countryman and co-...
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Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification

Before I can arrive at a conclusion, or even make comment on a recent question asked in Stack Christianity, I need clarification on the Greek text of two scriptures. The matter relates to both God the ...
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Does 1 John 3:8-9 teach that a person can be entirely free from sin and sinning? [closed]

In the Scriptures we read: He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the ...
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Is 1st John 1:9 referring to Believers or Unbelievers?

I have heard excellent views for both sides of the coin on this topic, but I was curious as to what others thought about this particular verse. Is 1st John 1:9 referring to BELIEVERS or UNBELIEVERS? ...
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What does “pride of life” refer to in 1 John 2:16?

What does "pride of life" refer to in 1 John 2: 16? For all that is in the world—the desires of the flesh and the desires of the eyes and pride of life—is not from the Father but is from the world. ...
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Why does St. John urge the believers to not love the same “world/humankind” (1 John 2:15) which God himself loves in John 3:16? [duplicate]

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. (John 3:16 kjv) Love not the world, neither the ...
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What does “as Jesus did” mean in 1 John 2:6?

In 1 John 2:6 NIV, it says that 6 Whoever claims to live in him must live as Jesus did. What is the meaning of this verse in general, but more specifically the part of living "as Jesus did"? Jesus ...
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Why is there extra text in the KJV of 1 John 5:7?

John 5:7 (KJV) "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." 1 John 5:7 (NIV) For there are three that testify: ...
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In 1 John 2:3, is εν τούτῳ (“by this”) an instrumental dative or locative dative?

Now by this we know that we know Him, if we keep His commandments. - 1 John 2:3 (NKJV) I am new to Greek and I am not sure how to parse exactly the word this (Gk τούτῳ) whether it is locative dative ...
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Why did St. John change from αἰτεῖν to ἐρωτᾷν in his appeal? (1 John 5:14-16)

14 And this is the confidence that we have toward him, that if we ask anything according to his will he hears us. 15 And if we know that he hears us in whatever we ask, we know that we have the ...
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In 1 John 5:1 does “the one” refer to “God's child” or to “God's children”?

In my mother language Bible, 1 John 5:1 is referring to The Son (singular) by using capital H for "he". It's almost similar as read in the NIV version. 1 John 5:1 (NIV)Everyone who believes that ...
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In 1 John 2:5 what is meant by “his word”?

1Jn 2:3  And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments.  1Jn 2:4  He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him.  1Jn 2:...
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To whom was the letter 1 John written?

I understand that 1 John was directed to Christians who were hit by the rise of Gnosticism. I also understand that the letter was believed to have been written in Ephesus. Is there any research to ...
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Love outside of God? [closed]

Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. (1 John 4:8 NIV) The reverse would be: Whoever does love does know God, because God is love. If every human being is created in the ...
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What is the root definition of Greek word teknia and paidia in 1st John 2 & 3?

In 1st John 2:1, the Greek word "teknia" is in the vocative case and is translated as Little children. Also in 1st John 2:12 the same Greek word is use again with the same grammar and is translated ...
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In 1 John 4:8 which Greek word is used for “love” and what kind of “love” does that indicate?

NIV 1 John 4:8 Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. Knowing that Greek has multiple words for love which sense of love is employed here in the last half of the verse?
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What does “the flesh” mean in 1 John 4:2

In various translations, 1 John 4:2 says: New International Version This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is ...
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Why does Paul say he wasn't sent by men?

In Galatians 1:1, Paul says: Paul, an apostle, (not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ, and God the Father, who raised him from the dead;) What does Paul mean by he wasn't sent by man, ...
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Is the “right” to become children of God two different ways people become children of God?

He came to his own, and his own people did not receive him. But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of ...
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Is “children” or “little children” the best understanding for παιδία in 1 John?

Twice John uses the word παιδία: I am writing to you, fathers, because you know him who is from the beginning. I am writing to you, young men, because you have overcome the evil one. ...
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Is the use of ἀγάπη (agape) and ἀγαπάω (agapao) evidence the Gospel and Letters of John were written from Ephesus?

John reports Jesus gave a new command which would identify followers of Jesus Christ: A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love (ἀγαπᾶτε) one another; as I have loved (ἠγάπησα) you, that ye ...
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In John 1:29, is there a “the sin” of the world?

John the Baptist said Jesus would take away the sin of the world: On the next day he sees Jesus coming toward him. And he says, “Look— the Lamb of God, the One taking-away the sin of the world. (...
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What factors bear on the authenticity of Χριστοῦ in 1 John 1:7?

The word “Christ” is absent in most modern translations of 1 John 1:7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus his Son ...
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Discerning or evaluating prophesies

1 Corinthians 14:29 NKJV) 29 Let two or three prophets speak, and let the others judge. 1 Thessalonians 5:19-22 (NKJV) 19 Do not quench the Spirit. 20 Do not despise prophecies. 21 Test all ...
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The significance of “knowing all things” in the Johannine literature

[Regarding the Lord Jesus Christ] in John 16:30, it is written, 30 Now are we sure that thou knowest all things, and needest not that any man should ask thee: by this we believe that thou camest ...
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Does the Epistle 1 John state that fellowship with the Father and His Son, Jesus Christ is the same as fellowship with God?

The early church dealt with challenges to the true nature of Jesus Christ, such as Gnosticism [Gnosticism] and Arianism [Arianism] which attacked or undermined both the Incarnation of God and the ...
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Is 1 John 5:18 is “does not sin” an assertion that *saints don't sin* or that *saints are not to sin*?

1 John 5:18 We know that everyone who has been born of God does not keep on sinning I don't understand the verse, because I myself wonder "how do people know that someone is born of God or not ?...
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In 1 John 1:1, why is the relative pronoun declined in the neuter gender?

The Greek text of 1 John 1:1–2 according to the Textus Receptus states, Αʹ ὃ ἦν ἀπ᾽ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ἡμῶν ὃ ἐθεασάμεθα καὶ αἱ χεῖρες ἡμῶν ἐψηλάφησαν περὶ τοῦ λόγου τῆς ...
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“He” in 1 John 1:9

1 John 1:9 says this: If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. (ESV) Who is "he"? I am unsure whether it is Jesus or the ...
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In 1 John 4:1, what is the relationship between the “false prophets” and “the breath/spirit”?

In 1 John 4:1, what is the relationship between the "false prophets" and "the breath/spirit"? It seems that the translations disagree: New International Version Dear friends, do not believe every ...
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In 1 John 4:3-4, in what sense is John using the word KOSMOS?

The passage seems to contrast a man in the secular order with a man inside the Christian community: KJV 1Jn 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not ...
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In 1 John 4:3-4, who or what is the “he” that is in the world and in what sense?

While verse 4 is popularly believed to be a the Devil, it is actually referring to the antichrist, who was expected, came and hit the start button on the final hour: KJV 1Jn 4:3 And every spirit ...
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“went out from us” and “belong to us” in 1 John 2:19?

1 John 2:19 They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us. For if they had belonged to us, they would have remained with us; but their going showed that none of them belonged to us. ...
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When (or how) did Jesus say: “God is light and in Him is no darkness at all?”

The introduction of 1 John states: This is the message which we have heard from Him and declare to you... (1:5 NKJV) The writer states they heard a message from Jesus and are now declaring it to ...
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Why is the position of the verse marker of 1 John 2:14 inconsistent?

i.e. NASB: I have written to you, children, because you know the Father. 14I have written to you, fathers, HCSB: 14I have written to you, children, because you have come to know the ...
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Is 1 John 2:8 a reference to 2 Thessalonians 2:3?

In 2 Thessalonians Paul seems to say that it can't possibly be the last hour because prior to the return of Christ there must be a rebellion: 2 Thessalonians 2:3 (NIV) Don’t let anyone deceive ...
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What is the new commandment in the letter of 1 John?

The writer of 1 John uses repetition throughout the letter. Sometimes the repetition is also characterized by a change of tense. What is the meaning of the shift from present to aorist in 1 John 2:12-...
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Is the difference between τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν in John and τὸν ἀληθινὸν θεὸν in 1 John based on the personal fellowship Jesus has with The Father?

The night before He died Jesus prayed to the Father: And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent. (John 17:3)1 John 17:3: αὕτη δέ ἐστιν ...
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What does γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ Θεοῦ (born from out of God) mean in 1 John 3:9 and 5:4?

"Whosoever is born (γεγεννημένος) of (ἐκ: out from) God (τοῦ Θεοῦ) doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born (γεγεννημένος) of (ἐκ: out from) God (τοῦ ...
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Is chapter 2 of 1 John patterned after the first 3 chapters of Revelation?

The letter of 1 John contains a unique structure: 12 I write to you, little children, Because your sins are forgiven you for His name’s sake. 13 I write to you, fathers, Because you ...
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What are the idols and who are the little children?

The letter of 1 John comes to what seems to be an abrupt ending. Yet in the context of the entire letter is examined, the ending seems to be purposeful : Chapter 1 - Introudction My little ...
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Why Is There An Apparent Contradiction Between 1 Corin 11: 28-32 and 1 John 3:9? [closed]

1 John 3:9 says: “No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in them; they cannot go on sinning, because they have been born of God.” (NIV) The KJV says ‘cannot sin’...
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Is 1 John 3:8-9 saying that it's impossible for Christians to sin? [duplicate]

1 John 3:9 says: "Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God." (NKJV) The verse appears to say that it is IMPOSSIBLE ...
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Antichrist, Man of Lawlessness, Beast of Revelation 13

It is generally assumed that the antichrist, the man of lawlessness, and the beast in Revelation 13 all refer to the same end time enemy of God. What is the basis for this assumption? Are there ...
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What is John saying in 1 John 4:8?

1 John 4:8 ESV Anyone who does not love does not know God, because God is love. Nestle GNT 1904 ὁ μὴ ἀγαπῶν οὐκ ἔγνω τὸν Θεόν, ὅτι ὁ Θεὸς ἀγάπη ἐστίν. Tischendorf 8th Edition ὁ μὴ ἀγαπῶν ...
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What word comprises the subject of the second clause of 1 John 4:8?

1 John 4:8 reads in the NIV, Whoever does not love does not know God, because God is love. However this translation reverses the order of the words of the second clause in the original Greek: ...
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461 views

In 1 John 2:27, what is the meaning of the phrase “τὸ χρίσμα”?

In 1 John 2:27, it is written, 27 But the anointing which ye have received of him abideth in you, and ye need not that any man teach you: but as the same anointing teacheth you of all things, and ...
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549 views

Why Does The Thought Of 1 John Flow The Way It Does?

Following "Tests Of Life" (Robert Law), many have identified that John is following a circular or spiralling line of thought in 1 John by initially stating several key topics and then revisiting them ...
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What is the justification for the NASB translators capitalizing “Word” in 1 John 1:1?

In John's gospel introduction, Jesus is presented as the incarnate Word and so capitalizing Word there is fitting. In 1 John 1:1, it seems clear that the 'word' is the message about the Life, and ...