Questions tagged [1-john]
Questions about John's first letter. It contains both warnings about false teachers and spiritual themes about Jesus Christ.
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1 John 1:9 - What is the significance of the usage ὁμολογέω (confess) in the context?
In the Gospels, μετανοέω (repent) is used to repent of sin. Are there contextual factors using the ὁμολογέω in 1 John?
Are there any Scriptural examples to differentiate the two: μετανοέω and ...
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In Johannine Comma: Three are One, or Three in One, or Three in are?
In the Johannine Comma, i.e: 1John 5:7, the Greek texts which contain the trinity mention εν which means in, look:
1550 Stephanus New Testament:
7 οτι τρεις εισιν οι μαρτυρουντες εν τω ουρανω ο πατηρ ...
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Why might we say one of these is "better" than the other? 1. God protects him/auton ESV or 2. God keepeth himself/heauton KJB. 1 John 5:18
"We know that everyone who has been born of God does not keep on sinning, but he who was born of God protects him" 1 John 5:18 ESV him/auton Strong's 846.
Possibly meaning-Christ born of ...
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1answer
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Does "born" have the same meaning on the two occasions it occurs in 1 John 5:18?"
"We know that whoever is born of God does not sin; but he who has been
born of God keeps himself, and the wicked one does not touch him." 1
John 5:18 NKJB.
The word "born" occurs ...
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1answer
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How do we interpret James 5:16 in light of 1 John 1:9?
James says: “So confess your sins to one another and pray for one another so that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous person has great effectiveness.”
James 5:16
& 1st John 1:9 says: ...
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4answers
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Why does John emphasize the keeping of the commandments in his letters?
More than seven times John refers to the keeping of the commandments,it seems there is a strong emphasis on keeping the commandments in the books of John
1 John 2:3-4 ESV
And by this we know that we ...
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7answers
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What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’?
This following verse has me thinking…
1 JOHN 3:12 not as Cain who was of the wicked one and murdered his brother. [snip]
What made Cain ‘of the wicked one’?
[Edit] Clarification - this verse seems to ...
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7answers
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Are we sons of God or are we still waiting to be adopted? How do we harmonize?
Paul says that we are awaiting adoption:
23 And not only the creation, but we ourselves, who have the firstfruits of the Spirit, groan inwardly as we wait eagerly for adoption as sons, the redemption ...
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3answers
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Are the words "beginning" and "word" mentioned in 1John 2:7 the same as those found in John 1:1?
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word
was God; John 1:1 (YLT)
Brethren, a new command I write not to you, but an old command, that
ye had from the beginning -- the ...
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2answers
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Why does 1 John 4:16 switch from plural "we have come to know" to singular "and whoever abides"?
1 John 4:16 "So we have come to know and believe the love that God has for us. God is love, and whoever abides in love abides in God, and God abides in him". ESV.
1 John 14-17:
"And we ...
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3answers
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The evil one cannot harm (vs touch) them. NIV vs ESV
1 John 5:18
New International Version
We know that anyone born of God does not continue to sin; the One who was born of God keeps them safe, and the evil one cannot harm them.
English Standard ...
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7answers
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Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?
In 1 John 1:8, John says
If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.
And in chapter 3, verse 9, he says
Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his ...
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9answers
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How are we to understand Jesus' words in Matthew 7:21-23, and how do they apply to us today?
Christ speaks some very harsh words in the Gospel of Matthew:
Matthew 7:21-23: “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father who ...
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4answers
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What is That 'which' in, "That which was from the beginning..." 1 John 1:1
That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we looked upon and have touched with our hands, concerning the word of life— 2 the life was made ...
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4answers
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Perfect love that casts out fear vs Fear of God - Are 1 John 4:18 and 2 Corinthians 7:1 talking about different concepts of fear?
1 John 4:18 (ESV):
There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear. For fear has to do with punishment, and whoever fears has not been perfected in love.
2 Corinthians 7:1 (ESV):
Since we ...
asked Mar 27 '21 at 0:00
Spirit Realm Investigator
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3answers
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Does "Jesus has come in the flesh" in 1 John 4:2 imply a fleshless pre-existence?
1 John 4:2 (ESV):
2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God,
When I read this verse, my immediate impression is that of ...
asked Mar 26 '21 at 0:52
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6
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3answers
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Do the three nominative nouns in John 10:30 express an 'equivalence'?
εγω και ο πατηρ εν εσμεν [John 10:30 TR, undisputed]
I and the Father one are [John 10:30 EGNT ¹]
All three nouns 'I' 'Father' and 'one' are, here, nominative singular, as is the article.
Thus there ...
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How should one understand John 14:1 AND 1John 5:1?
John 14:1:- “Let not your heart be troubled; you believe in God, believe ALSO in Me.”
1John 5:1:- “Whoever believes that Jesus is the Christ is born of God, and everyone who loves Him who begot also ...
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1answer
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No one has ever seen God; ἑώρακεν vs τεθέαται
John 1:18
New International Version
No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
has ever seen
ἑώρακεν (...
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1answer
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What is the best way to translate Τεκνία in 1 John 2:1 and the other five times?
Τεκνία is the plural diminutive of τέκνον (child).
diminutive adjective
(14th century)
1 : indicating small size and sometimes the state or quality of being familiarly known, lovable, pitiable, or ...
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3answers
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What is the meaning of tetheatai "has seen" [God] in 1 John 4:12?
This question is based on discussion in the comments on two separate questions here and here
No man hath seen God at any time. If we love one another, God dwelleth
in us, and his love is perfected in ...
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6answers
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How are we to test the spirits?
1 John 4:1-6 (NRSV) stresses the importance of testing the spirits, given that not all spirits come from God:
Beloved, do not believe every spirit, but test the spirits to see whether they are from ...
asked Feb 15 '21 at 3:53
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2
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3answers
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Was the Capernaum spirit from God or from Satan?
Mark 1
New International Version
21 They went to Capernaum, and when the Sabbath came, Jesus went into the synagogue and began to teach. 22The people were amazed at his teaching, because he taught ...
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5answers
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You have overcome the evil one. Really?
Matthew 6:13
New International Version
And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from the evil one.
1 John 2:14c
I write to you, young men, because you are strong, and the word of God lives ...
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4answers
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In 1 John 4:18, does "because fear hath punishment" mean, "He who fears will be punished"?
1John 4:18 ASV;
There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love.
Does "because fear hath punishment&...
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2answers
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What is the emphasis of προς in 1 John 2:1 ('with' the Father)?
τεκνια μου ταυτα γραφω υμιν ινα μη αμαρτητε και εαν τις αμαρτη παρακλητον εχομεν προς τον πατερα ιησουν χριστον δικαιον [1 John 2:1 - TR (undisputed)]
My little children, these things write I unto ...
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5answers
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What does "his love" mean in 1 John 4:12?
1 John 4:12 ESV "No one has ever seen God; if we love one another, God abides in us and his love is perfected in us."
Does "his love" here refer to:
1 John 4:9. His love for Jesus,...
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How could 'Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob' be living eternally in Heaven if they never believed the requirement in 1 John 5:5-13 to receive eternal life?
We read three statements in 1 John 5:5-13 that appear to contradict the teachings of Jesus the Messiah from Matthew 8:10-11 & Matthew 22:30-22 regarding requirements of receiving eternal life.
In ...
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4answers
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Translation of 1 John 5:16
I have a question regarding the translation of 1 John 5:16. In the verses below, I have highlighted the translated (added?) words I’m querying.
Why does the NIV use ’you’ where the NKJV uses ’he’?
[...
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4answers
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1 John 4:17b In this world we are just like Him. But are we just like Jesus?
NIV
1 John 3:2b
But we know that when Christ appears, we shall be like him, for we shall see him as he is.
We shall be like him. Easy. Make sense. Then a chapter later in
NIV 1 John 4:17b In this ...
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1answer
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Is unconditional love of God biblical? [closed]
1 John 4:9–10
“In this the love of God was made manifest among us, that God sent his only son into the world, so that we might live through him. In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he ...
4
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1answer
958 views
In 1 John 5:8, is the reference to spirit, water, and blood an allusion to Jesus' crucifixion?
Is it reasonable to think that the 3 witnesses mentioned in 1 John 5:8, Spirit, Water, and Blood, refer back to the crucifixion? Specifically John 19:34-35 (NASB),
34But one of the soldiers pierced ...
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0answers
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1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV) why is "Earth" not found? [duplicate]
1 John 5:7,8 (ESV, NIV):
For there are three that testify:
the Spirit and the water and the blood; and these three agree.
For there are three that testify:
the Spirit, the water and ...
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1answer
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Does John use οὗτός at the end of his letter to form an inclusio to the beginning of his Gospel?
John begins the Gospel by describing the Word who was with God, came to earth, and returned to His Father:
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was in ...
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2answers
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(John 20) Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting with Christ
In the Gospel of John, Thomas plays a huge role compared to the other gospels. He seems to be present quite a bit, and as a leader. My question is: "Why wasn't Thomas at the first meeting of Jesus ...
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1answer
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Is ἐξ ( ἐκ,) " from" or "of" , or either -in 1 John 2:19?
How does it change the meaning of the verse - 1 John 2:19?
What is the respective theological implication, if any?
1 John 2:19
KJV -"They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had ...
2
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1answer
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What does "apestalken" mean in 1 John 4:14?
"the Father has sent [apestalken] his Son to be the Savior of the world", E.S.V.
Some possibly relevant thoughts:
"the Father has sent his Son to be the Savior of the world":
that ...
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1answer
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Is there a relationship between 1 John 4:18 and Revelation 21:8?
1 John 4:18 (ASV):
There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love.
Revelation 21:8 (ASV):
...
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2answers
335 views
In 1 John 1:5, is God literally "Light"?
"This is the message we have heard from Him and announce to you, that God is Light, and in Him there is no darkness at all." 1 John 1:5 NASB, bolls.life/NASB/62/1/5
Sorry for my English. And my ...
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3answers
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In 1 John 4:18, what is the punishment of fear?
IJn 4:18 (asv)
There is no fear in love: but perfect love casteth out fear, because fear hath punishment; and he that feareth is not made perfect in love.
Fear has punishment? What is that punishment
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1answer
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Should ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) in 1 John 3:17 be interpreted as a subjective or objective genitive?
I see that different translations translate the Greek phrase ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ (“the love of God”) as either “God’s love” or “love of God.” There seems to be a big difference between the two. It seems ...
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How to reconcile 1 John 4:15 with Mathew 8:29?
The fourth chapter of 1 John talks about how we should test every spirit, for not every spirit is of God, because many false prophets have gone out into the world. It says in verse 15:
1 John 4:15 ...
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What is the meaning of "is" in "He that loveth not knoweth not God; for God is love" in 1John 4v8? AV
To say something e.g. x "is" something else e.g. 5, is a way to explain x.
To say that a tower "is" tall may be just one of many features. The tower may also be square or round. i.e. one of many ...
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4answers
196 views
What is an exegetical understanding of ἀντίχριστ- / anti-chist?
The phrase "anti-christ" is specific to the works of the apostle John in 1John 2:18, 1John 2:22; 1John 4:3 and 2John 1:7.
These are the only places where the compound word and understanding of anti-...
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3answers
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Is 1 John 2:15-17 talking about this life or the after life?
1 John 2:15-17 (NIV): Do not love the world or anything in the world. If anyone loves the world, love for the Father is not in them. For everything in the world—the lust of the flesh, the lust of the ...
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1answer
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In 1 John 2:17 what "world" does he say is passing away?
[1Jo 2:17 ESV] (17) And the world is passing away along with its desires, but whoever does the will of God abides forever.
[1Jo 2:17 mGNT] καὶ ὁ κόσμος παράγεται καὶ ἡ ἐπιθυμία αὐτοῦ ὁ δὲ ποιῶν τὸ ...
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In 1 John 1:1 should it read "the word of life" or "the living message"?
Note: I am double-posting this from my own question on B-Greek for whomever would like to follow along or participate there.
mGNT 1 John 1:1-3
1 ὃ ἦν ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς ὃ ἀκηκόαμεν ὃ ἑωράκαμεν τοῖς ὀφθαλμοῖς ...
3
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4answers
399 views
What's the meaning of brother in 1 John 2.9-11?
In 1 John 2.9-11, John uses adelphos, or brother. Researching that, I came across The Outline of Biblical Usage by Larry Pierce which says adelphos is sometimes used to mean countryman and co-...
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3answers
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Two N.T. verses in two different Greek Interlinears have differences that seem critically important so I ask for clarification
Before I can arrive at a conclusion, or even make comment on a recent question asked in Stack Christianity, I need clarification on the Greek text of two scriptures. The matter relates to both God the ...
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1answer
100 views
Does 1 John 3:8-9 teach that a person can be entirely free from sin and sinning? [closed]
In the Scriptures we read:
He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the ...
