Linked Questions

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249 views

Does the affirmation "Lord is God" in Deut. 4:35 refer to God in the plural or singular sense? [duplicate]

The OT often states; Lord (Jehovah) God (Elohim) in sequence. Deut. 4:35; LORD (Jehovah) he is God (Elohim). Deut. 4:39; that the LORD (Jehovah) he is God (Elohim). 2 Sam. 7:22; LORD (Jehovah) God (...
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2answers
262 views

In Creation account especially Genesis 1:1-3 and 1:26, why "elohim" and "us' and "our" are plural? [duplicate]

My question is different from question why "elohim" is translated as singular "God" and not plural "Gods", because I like present a talking about about it is not "Elohim" is the subject, but "Elohim" ...
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5answers
6k views

Is there bible translation that is more literal than Young Literal Translation [closed]

That's it. The translation should not favor any theology and should allow readers to read texts the way it really is For example Elohim -> gods Yea, I know that Elohim are often followed by ...
11
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9answers
693 views

How can John 1:18 say that "No man has seen God" when the Bible says that Abraham, Moses, Job and others have?

At John 1:18 it says, "No man has seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him." But Genesis 17:1 says the Lord appeared to Abram ...
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6answers
4k views

Is God male and female?

Reading Genesis I'm a little bit confused about these verses: Genesis 1:26 Then God said, “Let us make mankind in our image, in our likeness, so that they may rule over the fish in the sea and ...
12
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5answers
3k views

In Genesis 20:13, why is elohim with a plural verb translated God rather than gods?

Genesis 20:13 (ESV) And when God caused me to wander… (WLC): ויהי כאשר התעו אתי אלהים Another question asked about the translation of אלהים (‘elohim) using the singular God. The answers indicated ...
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4answers
4k views

Who is the "us" in Genesis 11:7?

Who is the plural referring to in Genesis 11:7 if it's GOD himself (or Yahweh) who has confused the language of people to stop the building of the Babel Tower? Verse from the NIV Bible: "Come, ...
5
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4answers
2k views

Is "revile the gods" (KJV) an accurate translation in Exo. 22:28?

In Exo. 22:28(1) (KJV), it is written, Thou shalt not revile the gods, nor curse the ruler of thy people. Is "gods" the correct translation of the Hebrew? The Hebrew word is אֱלֹהִים (’ĕ·lō·hîm), ...
1
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2answers
796 views

In Genesis 6:4, how should the Hebrew phrase בְּנֵי הָאֱלֹהִים be translated? [duplicate]

Elohim is a very confusing word in Hebrew for me. Sometimes it means "God", sometimes it means "gods". Then it can also mean "angel", even though Hebrew has another word for angels, namely mal’ak. ...
3
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1answer
135 views

You all are gods vs. You all are God?

Plural Usage In the answer of Why is elohim translated as God rather than gods? the plural usage occurs because of the verb or adjective. Psalm 82:6 WLC אֲ‍ֽנִי־אָ֭מַרְתִּי אֱלֹהִ֣ים אַתֶּ֑ם וּבְנֵ֖י ...
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3answers
274 views

What does Patterns of Elohim followed by Singular Words like in Genesis 1:1 really mean?

There are claims that ancient Torah isn't a monotheistic text. I looked at Genesis 1:1. We have this famous pattern of elohim (plural of eloah) followed by singular verb. This is related to Why is ...
1
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2answers
104 views

In John 17:26 what does Jesus mean by "and that I myself might be in them"?

[John 17:26 NIV] (26) I have made you known to them, and will continue to make you known in order that the love you have for me may be in them and that I myself may be in them." What does "I myself" ...
2
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0answers
121 views

Why is the name for God אֱלּוֹהִים (Elohim) plural? [closed]

If Old Testament Judaism was a monotheistic religion, and Yahweh wanted to distinguish the Hebrews from their neighboring countries' polytheistic religions, why is His name אֱלוֹהִים (Elohim) plural? ...