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25 votes
21 answers
20k views

Is Revelation 3:14 saying that Christ was created by God?

Revelation 3:14 (KJV) 14 And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God; Most translations ...
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5 votes
9 answers
979 views

Are there contextual cues which suggest Jesus calming the storm does not require Jesus to be God Almighty?

In all three Synoptic Gospels, Jesus is recorded as calming a storm. The incident happens about Matthew 8:24, Mark 4:37, and Luke 8:23. Here is the complete pericope from Matthew: Matthew 8:23-27 (...
Only True God's user avatar
8 votes
5 answers
843 views

Is the Son second in authority under God the Father? 1 Corinthians 15:24-28

1 Corinthians 15:24-28 (NRSV): 24 Then comes the end, when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father, after he has destroyed every ruler and every authority and power. 25 For he must reign until he ...
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5 votes
5 answers
2k views

Did Jesus deny equality with God in John 5:19 in an attempt to clarify the Christological misunderstanding of the Jews who wanted to kill him?

John 5:18-19 (ESV) 18 This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with ...
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4 votes
7 answers
2k views

What does "equality with God" mean, and how can it be "exploited"? Philippians 2:6

Philippians 2:5-8 (NRSV): 5 Let the same mind be in you that was in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be exploited, 7 but emptied ...
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0 votes
8 answers
1k views

Jesus says plainly he is a man - does John 8:40 preclude him from also being God?

They answered and said to him, “Abraham is our father.” Jesus said to them, “If you are Abraham’s children, do the deeds of Abraham. But as it is, you are seeking to kill me, a man who has told you ...
Steve's user avatar
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6 votes
4 answers
423 views

How do we reconcile John 5:18 with Psalm 2:7?

At John 5:18, "Because of this, the Jews tried all the harder to kill Him. Not only was He breaking the Sabbath, but He was even calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God." ...
Only True God's user avatar
4 votes
3 answers
769 views

In the Gospel of John, did the Jews disbelieve or misunderstand the Lord Jesus Christ?

Several times during the narrative provided by the Gospel of John the Jews attempt to kill the Lord Jesus Christ. For example: John 5:17-18 17 But He answered them, “My Father is working until ...
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6 votes
3 answers
466 views

John 5:18 — John's own Christology or Misunderstanding of the Jews?

(Biases on the table: I am a Christian and believe that Jesus is God in the flesh, namely, the eternal Λογος of God Rev 19:13 (who is distinct from the Father προς τον θεον, but of the same nature ...
Sola Gratia's user avatar
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5 votes
6 answers
341 views

Does Philippians 2:5-8 indicate chronological progression?

Based upon comments to this question on Christianity SE and, looking at the text of Philippians 2:5-8: Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, who, though he was in the form ...
Mike Borden's user avatar
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1 vote
4 answers
177 views

What can the Son do nothing for himself?

So Jesus answered them, "I tell you the solemn truth, the Son can do nothing on his own initiative, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father does, the Son does likewise. (...
Betho's's user avatar
1 vote
2 answers
387 views

What is the significance of ἴσα in Phil. 2:6?

In Phil. 2:6, it is written, ὃς ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ Wiktionary lists the various declensions of the Greek adjective ἴσος. My question is, how is the word ...
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3 votes
5 answers
438 views

Is Hebrews 13:8 an affirmation of Christ’s deity?

I do already affirm trinitarian doctrine, so I’m not intending to be biased, however, does Hebrews 13:8 affirm Jesus’ deity? To ask the question is simple, but to define Jesus as “unchanging” seems to ...
Cork88's user avatar
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0 votes
1 answer
63 views

Jesus says His Father is greater than Him so does Jesus' death show that His love for those for whom He died was greater than His Father's?

In John's account of the final night before crucifixion, Jesus uses the word μέγας, "greater" six times (13:16 twice, 14:12, 14:28, 15:13, and 15:20). Three of the sayings are given in a way ...
Revelation Lad's user avatar