Linked Questions

4 votes
5 answers
565 views

What does “the evil one does not touch him” mean in 1 John 5:18?

1 John 5:18 NASB “We know that no one who is born of God sins; but He who was born of God keeps him, and the evil one does not touch him.” ‭‭ What is the meaning of “the evil one does not touch him”?...
10 votes
5 answers
2k views

In 1 John 3:6, is "keeps on sinning" a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in 1611), ...
3 votes
5 answers
233 views

Is Hebrews 6:4-8 saying that Isaiah 27:4-5 does not apply to Christians who fall away or that it does?

[Hebrews 6:4-8 NASB20] (4) For it is impossible, in the case of those who have once been enlightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit, (5) and have ...
2 votes
3 answers
933 views

Colossians 1:18; "the firstborn from the dead" literal or symbolic?

Colossians 1:18 DRB; 18 And he is the head of the body, the church, who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he may hold the primacy: The Dead from whom the Christ was ...
0 votes
1 answer
270 views

(1 John 3:5-10 & 1 John 5:18)Alexandrian manuscripts relatively practical, level-headed while Byzantine manuscripts are rhetorical hyperbole-like

As I was reading 1 John 3:5-10 & 1 John 5:18 in different bible translations belonging to either the Byzantine family or the Alexandrian family of manuscripts. I noticed that the Alexandrian ...
-2 votes
1 answer
118 views

Does 1 John 3:8-9 teach that a person can be entirely free from sin and sinning? [closed]

In the Scriptures we read: He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the ...
2 votes
3 answers
606 views

Why Is There An Apparent Contradiction Between 1 Corin 11: 28-32 and 1 John 3:9? [closed]

1 John 3:9 says: “No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in them; they cannot go on sinning, because they have been born of God.” (NIV) The KJV says ‘cannot sin’...
1 vote
2 answers
240 views

What does γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ Θεοῦ (born from out of God) mean in 1 John 3:9 and 5:4?

"Whosoever is born (γεγεννημένος) of (ἐκ: out from) God (τοῦ Θεοῦ) doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born (γεγεννημένος) of (ἐκ: out from) God (...
1 vote
0 answers
762 views

Is 1 John 3:8-9 saying that it's impossible for Christians to sin? [duplicate]

1 John 3:9 says: "Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God." (NKJV) The verse appears to say that it is IMPOSSIBLE ...
4 votes
2 answers
257 views

What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)?

What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)? 1 John 3.9: Πᾶς ὁ γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἁμαρτίαν οὐ ποιεῖ, ὅτι σπέρμα αὐτοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ μένει, καὶ οὐ δύναται ἁμαρτάνειν, ...
2 votes
1 answer
865 views

Why is Breath or Wind a better translation choice then Spirit? [closed]

"Spirit" occurs 505 times in 456 verses in the KJV. The English word is translated from the Hebrew ruach and the Greek pnuema. Both of these words can also mean "breath" or "...
1 vote
1 answer
4k views

What does it mean when it says,"There is a sin unto death" [duplicate]

1 John 5:16 says " If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not ...