Linked Questions

1
vote
0answers
708 views

Is 1 John 3:8-9 saying that it's impossible for Christians to sin? [duplicate]

1 John 3:9 says: "Whoever has been born of God does not sin, for His seed remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God." (NKJV) The verse appears to say that it is IMPOSSIBLE ...
18
votes
7answers
5k views

Are 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 3:9 contradictory?

In 1 John 1:8, John says If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. And in chapter 3, verse 9, he says Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his ...
8
votes
2answers
2k views

In 1 John 3:6, is "keeps on sinning" a good translation of ἁμαρτάνει?

1 John 3:6 reads: πᾶς ὁ ἐν αὐτῷ μένων οὐχ ἁμαρτάνει· πᾶς ὁ ἁμαρτάνων οὐχ ἑώρακεν αὐτὸν οὐδὲ ἔγνωκεν αὐτόν The KJV translates it the way the elementary Greek student would (if he lived in 1611), ...
1
vote
1answer
3k views

What does it mean when it says,"There is a sin unto death" [duplicate]

1 John 5:16 says " If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin unto death: I do not ...
2
votes
1answer
780 views

Why is Breath or Wind a better translation choice then Spirit? [closed]

"Spirit" occurs 505 times in 456 verses in the KJV. The English word is translated from the Hebrew ruach and the Greek pnuema. Both of these words can also mean "breath" or "...
2
votes
3answers
262 views

Colossians 1:18; "the firstborn from the dead" literal or symbolic?

Colossians 1:18 DRB; 18 And he is the head of the body, the church, who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he may hold the primacy: The Dead from whom the Christ was ...
2
votes
3answers
512 views

Why Is There An Apparent Contradiction Between 1 Corin 11: 28-32 and 1 John 3:9? [closed]

1 John 3:9 says: “No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God’s seed remains in them; they cannot go on sinning, because they have been born of God.” (NIV) The KJV says ‘cannot sin’...
4
votes
2answers
213 views

What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)?

What is the difference between οὐ δύναται (1 Jn 3.9) and Ἀδύνατον (Heb 6.4)? 1 John 3.9: Πᾶς ὁ γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἁμαρτίαν οὐ ποιεῖ, ὅτι σπέρμα αὐτοῦ ἐν αὐτῷ μένει, καὶ οὐ δύναται ἁμαρτάνειν, ...
1
vote
1answer
143 views

(1 John 3:5-10 & 1 John 5:18)Alexandrian manuscripts relatively practical, level-headed while Byzantine manuscripts are rhetorical hyperbole-like

As I was reading 1 John 3:5-10 & 1 John 5:18 in different bible translations belonging to either the Byzantine family or the Alexandrian family of manuscripts. I noticed that the Alexandrian ...
3
votes
5answers
101 views

Is Hebrews 6:4-8 saying that Isaiah 27:4-5 does not apply to Christians who fall away or that it does?

[Hebrews 6:4-8 NASB20] (4) For it is impossible, in the case of those who have once been enlightened and have tasted of the heavenly gift and have been made partakers of the Holy Spirit, (5) and have ...
-2
votes
1answer
100 views

Does 1 John 3:8-9 teach that a person can be entirely free from sin and sinning? [closed]

In the Scriptures we read: He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the ...
1
vote
2answers
157 views

What does γεγεννημένος ἐκ τοῦ Θεοῦ (born from out of God) mean in 1 John 3:9 and 5:4?

"Whosoever is born (γεγεννημένος) of (ἐκ: out from) God (τοῦ Θεοῦ) doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born (γεγεννημένος) of (ἐκ: out from) God (...