Linked Questions

19
votes
13answers
4k views

“Very truly, I tell you, before Abraham was, I am.” - why did the Jews want to throw stones at Jesus for saying this?

John 8:53-59 (NRSV): 53 Are you greater than our father Abraham, who died? The prophets also died. Who do you claim to be?” 54 Jesus answered, “If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my ...
15
votes
9answers
28k views

In John 14:9, what is the meaning of the phrase “He who has seen me has seen the Father”?

In John 14:9, it is written, Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew ...
12
votes
4answers
5k views

Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?

It seems to me that the Hebrew language doesn't have graphemes representing vowel sounds. On the other hand, the Greek language does. Also, I've heard that Josephus said that the Tetragrammaton (יהוה)...
21
votes
4answers
2k views

Is ἐγώ εἰμι testified in extra-biblical Greek as an expression for saying "I am he"?

This question arises from this insightful answer to another question about John 8:58. That answer makes an argument that the Greek ἐγώ εἰμι (literally "I am") is the wording used to translate the ...
7
votes
7answers
971 views

Is Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 equivalent to God's "I am" statement in Exodus 3:14?

Is Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 equivalent to God's "I am" in Exodus 3:14? What is the meaning of "I am" in John 8:58 and what is the meaning of "I am" in Exodus 3:14?
4
votes
8answers
3k views

Does John 21:24-25 indicate John didn't write this Gospel?

The below 2 verses in the Gospel of John seem to indicate that "John" was not the true author of this Gospel. This intertextual proof seems to indicate that it was him because of the usage of ...
5
votes
6answers
1k views

Was Christ's statement in John 8:24 a claim of deity, and why would the Jews follow-up with "Who are you?" (8:25)?

John 8:23-25: "And He was saying to them, 'You are from below, I am from above; you are of this world, I am not of this world. 24Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless ...
7
votes
3answers
1k views

"I am the Christ" vs. "I am he" in the Synoptics (Matt 24:5 // Mark 13:6 // Luke 21:8)

In a prior Q&A, we discussed the Semitic background of Jesus' statements recorded in the Gospels as ἐγώ εἰμι (= I am [he]). My understanding based on the answer there and a follow-up Q&A was ...
2
votes
8answers
337 views

Jesus says plainly he is a man - does John 8:40 preclude him from also being God?

They answered and said to him, “Abraham is our father.” Jesus said to them, “If you are Abraham’s children, do the deeds of Abraham. But as it is, you are seeking to kill me, a man who has told you ...
-3
votes
2answers
966 views

Why did Jesus did not utter the whole phrase "ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν" in John 8:58? [closed]

Why did Jesus only say "ἐγὼ εἰμί" rather than, "ἐγὼ εἰμί ὁ ὤν"?
3
votes
2answers
289 views

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical English. To take "I am" as a title of God is equivalent to "Before Abraham ...
2
votes
4answers
208 views

Is there room for interpreting John 17:5 as Jesus having notional/ideal pre-existence in light of 2 Timothy 1:9?

This question is inspired by a Biblical Unitarian article on Jesus' Pre-Existence. The thesis defended by the article is that Jesus had notional or ideal pre-existence in God's mind rather than a ...
4
votes
2answers
303 views

Is the ego eimi (I am) in John 8:58 and John 8:28 the same?

John 8:28[ASV] Jesus, therefore, said, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he and that I do nothing of myself, but as the Father taught me, I speak these things John 8:...
0
votes
1answer
653 views

What was the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30? [closed]

I want to know the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30: "I and the Father are one." "Egō kai ho Patēr hen esmen." Specifically, I want to know whether the probable ...
3
votes
2answers
136 views

What does it mean to deny the Son? 1 John 2:23 [closed]

1 John 2:23 says: "No one who denies the Son has the father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also." We know there are many scriptures revealing that Jesus is God. I have a friend ...
8
votes
1answer
226 views

Does Hosea 1:9 contain a reference to the divine name I AM?

Hosea 1:9 וַיֹּ֕אמֶר קְרָ֥א שְׁמ֖וֹ לֹ֣א עַמִּ֑י כִּ֤י אַתֶּם֙ לֹ֣א עַמִּ֔י וְאָנֹכִ֖י לֹֽא־אֶהְיֶ֥ה לָכֶֽם׃ And the LORD said, “Call his name Not My People, for you are not my people, and I am ...
3
votes
4answers
167 views

During exegesis, should we consider the original language in which Jesus spoke?

When we do exegesis of Jesus's words for example should we take into consideration the original language in which he spoke? For example: Many try to argue that Jesus made a reference to Exodus 3:14-...
2
votes
1answer
352 views

What do the "I am" references in the NT refer to?

I am a student of Buddhism and, naturally, have a 'mystical' or 'gnostic' bent. I have read some unconventional views on the internet about the renowned words attributed to Jesus: I am the way, ...
2
votes
3answers
351 views

"I am" in Greek Septuagint translation of Exodus 3:14 vs. John 8:58 - how do they compare?

Exodus 3:14 YLT And God saith unto Moses, 'I AM THAT WHICH I AM;' He saith also, 'Thus dost thou say to the sons of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. How does the translation of the Greek ...
2
votes
2answers
124 views

Doesn’t Moses hypothetical response of the Israelites in (4:1) answer his proposed question in (3:13), then “I AM” is an assurance as in Exodus 3:12?

In 3:13, Moses does not directly ask, “What is your name?” It’s a dual question; his question is, “What shall I say to them?” In the introduction of 3:6, YHWH does not use His Name, rather the Hebrew ...
-1
votes
2answers
109 views

Jesus Son of God

I was looking at responses to John 8:58 and I saw some answers here saying that Jesus was claiming to be God this is why they tried to stone him... but my question is if he was claiming to be God and ...
3
votes
2answers
109 views

Are there two separate reasons given for wanting to stone Jesus?

Beginning in Chapter 5, John details how the Jews wanted to kill Jesus. First, the intent is described: for making Himself equal to God (5:18). Then the manner of death they picked up stones to throw ...