Linked Questions

2
votes
8answers
324 views

Jesus says plainly he is a man - does John 8:40 preclude him from also being God?

They answered and said to him, “Abraham is our father.” Jesus said to them, “If you are Abraham’s children, do the deeds of Abraham. But as it is, you are seeking to kill me, a man who has told you ...
19
votes
13answers
4k views

“Very truly, I tell you, before Abraham was, I am.” - why did the Jews want to throw stones at Jesus for saying this?

John 8:53-59 (NRSV): 53 Are you greater than our father Abraham, who died? The prophets also died. Who do you claim to be?” 54 Jesus answered, “If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my ...
5
votes
6answers
1k views

Was Christ's statement in John 8:24 a claim of deity, and why would the Jews follow-up with "Who are you?" (8:25)?

John 8:23-25: "And He was saying to them, 'You are from below, I am from above; you are of this world, I am not of this world. 24Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless ...
7
votes
7answers
931 views

Is Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 equivalent to God's "I am" statement in Exodus 3:14?

Is Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 equivalent to God's "I am" in Exodus 3:14? What is the meaning of "I am" in John 8:58 and what is the meaning of "I am" in Exodus 3:14?
4
votes
5answers
3k views

Does John 21:24-25 indicate John didn't write this Gospel?

The below 2 verses in the Gospel of John seem to indicate that "John" was not the true author of this Gospel. This intertextual proof seems to indicate that it was him because of the usage of ...
12
votes
4answers
5k views

Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?

It seems to me that the Hebrew language doesn't have graphemes representing vowel sounds. On the other hand, the Greek language does. Also, I've heard that Josephus said that the Tetragrammaton (יהוה)...
3
votes
2answers
109 views

Are there two separate reasons given for wanting to stone Jesus?

Beginning in Chapter 5, John details how the Jews wanted to kill Jesus. First, the intent is described: for making Himself equal to God (5:18). Then the manner of death they picked up stones to throw ...
2
votes
4answers
199 views

Is there room for interpreting John 17:5 as Jesus having notional/ideal pre-existence in light of 2 Timothy 1:9?

This question is inspired by a Biblical Unitarian article on Jesus' Pre-Existence. The thesis defended by the article is that Jesus had notional or ideal pre-existence in God's mind rather than a ...
2
votes
2answers
102 views

Doesn’t Moses hypothetical response of the Israelites in (4:1) answer his proposed question in (3:13), then “I AM” is an assurance as in Exodus 3:12?

In 3:13, Moses does not directly ask, “What is your name?” It’s a dual question; his question is, “What shall I say to them?” In the introduction of 3:6, YHWH does not use His Name, rather the Hebrew ...
4
votes
2answers
285 views

Is the ego eimi (I am) in John 8:58 and John 8:28 the same?

John 8:28[ASV] Jesus, therefore, said, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he and that I do nothing of myself, but as the Father taught me, I speak these things John 8:...
2
votes
3answers
260 views

"I am" in Greek Septuagint translation of Exodus 3:14 vs. John 8:58 - how do they compare?

Exodus 3:14 YLT And God saith unto Moses, 'I AM THAT WHICH I AM;' He saith also, 'Thus dost thou say to the sons of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. How does the translation of the Greek ...
3
votes
2answers
128 views

What does it mean to deny the Son? 1 John 2:23 [closed]

1 John 2:23 says: "No one who denies the Son has the father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also." We know there are many scriptures revealing that Jesus is God. I have a friend ...
3
votes
2answers
284 views

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical English. To take "I am" as a title of God is equivalent to "Before Abraham ...
21
votes
4answers
2k views

Is ἐγώ εἰμι testified in extra-biblical Greek as an expression for saying "I am he"?

This question arises from this insightful answer to another question about John 8:58. That answer makes an argument that the Greek ἐγώ εἰμι (literally "I am") is the wording used to translate the ...
2
votes
1answer
348 views

What do the "I am" references in the NT refer to?

I am a student of Buddhism and, naturally, have a 'mystical' or 'gnostic' bent. I have read some unconventional views on the internet about the renowned words attributed to Jesus: I am the way, ...

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