Linked Questions

15
votes
9answers
27k views

In John 14:9, what is the meaning of the phrase “He who has seen me has seen the Father”?

In John 14:9, it is written, Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew ...
12
votes
4answers
5k views

Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?

It seems to me that the Hebrew language doesn't have graphemes representing vowel sounds. On the other hand, the Greek language does. Also, I've heard that Josephus said that the Tetragrammaton (יהוה)...
21
votes
4answers
2k views

Is ἐγώ εἰμι testified in extra-biblical Greek as an expression for saying "I am he"?

This question arises from this insightful answer to another question about John 8:58. That answer makes an argument that the Greek ἐγώ εἰμι (literally "I am") is the wording used to translate the ...
7
votes
7answers
855 views

Is Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 equivalent to God's "I am" statement in Exodus 3:14?

Is Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 equivalent to God's "I am" in Exodus 3:14? What is the meaning of "I am" in John 8:58 and what is the meaning of "I am" in Exodus 3:14?
5
votes
6answers
1k views

Was Christ's statement in John 8:24 a claim of deity, and why would the Jews follow-up with "Who are you?" (8:25)?

John 8:23-25: "And He was saying to them, 'You are from below, I am from above; you are of this world, I am not of this world. 24Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless ...
4
votes
5answers
3k views

Does John 21:24-25 indicate John didn't write this Gospel?

The below 2 verses in the Gospel of John seem to indicate that "John" was not the true author of this Gospel. This intertextual proof seems to indicate that it was him because of the usage of ...
7
votes
3answers
1k views

"I am the Christ" vs. "I am he" in the Synoptics (Matt 24:5 // Mark 13:6 // Luke 21:8)

In a prior Q&A, we discussed the Semitic background of Jesus' statements recorded in the Gospels as ἐγώ εἰμι (= I am [he]). My understanding based on the answer there and a follow-up Q&A was ...
1
vote
7answers
279 views

Jesus says plainly he is a man - does John 8:40 preclude him from also being God?

They answered and said to him, “Abraham is our father.” Jesus said to them, “If you are Abraham’s children, do the deeds of Abraham. But as it is, you are seeking to kill me, a man who has told you ...
-3
votes
2answers
940 views

Why did Jesus did not utter the whole phrase "ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν" in John 8:58? [closed]

Why did Jesus only say "ἐγὼ εἰμί" rather than, "ἐγὼ εἰμί ὁ ὤν"?
3
votes
2answers
280 views

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical English. To take "I am" as a title of God is equivalent to "Before Abraham ...
2
votes
4answers
195 views

Is there room for interpreting John 17:5 as Jesus having notional/ideal pre-existence in light of 2 Timothy 1:9?

This question is inspired by a Biblical Unitarian article on Jesus' Pre-Existence. The thesis defended by the article is that Jesus had notional or ideal pre-existence in God's mind rather than a ...
4
votes
2answers
265 views

Is the ego eimi (I am) in John 8:58 and John 8:28 the same?

John 8:28[ASV] Jesus, therefore, said, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he and that I do nothing of myself, but as the Father taught me, I speak these things John 8:...
0
votes
1answer
614 views

What was the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30? [closed]

I want to know the probable original Hebrew statement spoken by Jesus in Jn 10:30: "I and the Father are one." "Egō kai ho Patēr hen esmen." Specifically, I want to know whether the probable ...
3
votes
2answers
117 views

What does it mean to deny the Son? 1 John 2:23 [closed]

1 John 2:23 says: "No one who denies the Son has the father; whoever acknowledges the Son has the Father also." We know there are many scriptures revealing that Jesus is God. I have a friend ...
8
votes
1answer
222 views

Does Hosea 1:9 contain a reference to the divine name I AM?

Hosea 1:9 וַיֹּ֕אמֶר קְרָ֥א שְׁמ֖וֹ לֹ֣א עַמִּ֑י כִּ֤י אַתֶּם֙ לֹ֣א עַמִּ֔י וְאָנֹכִ֖י לֹֽא־אֶהְיֶ֥ה לָכֶֽם׃ And the LORD said, “Call his name Not My People, for you are not my people, and I am ...

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