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5 votes
3 answers
400 views

What is the argument that Jesus' 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 should be translated as 'I am he' instead of 'I am'? [duplicate]

The standard way to translate Jesus' John 8:58 statement is "Before Abraham was, I am." Yet, a minority position is to translate 8:58b as 'I am he'. This is the view taken by Sozzini as ...
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19 votes
13 answers
5k views

“Very truly, I tell you, before Abraham was, I am.” - why did the Jews want to throw stones at Jesus for saying this?

John 8:53-59 (NRSV): 53 Are you greater than our father Abraham, who died? The prophets also died. Who do you claim to be?” 54 Jesus answered, “If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing. It is my ...
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15 votes
9 answers
31k views

In John 14:9, what is the meaning of the phrase “He who has seen me has seen the Father”?

In John 14:9, it is written, Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew ...
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12 votes
4 answers
6k views

Is יהוה ever transliterated in the Septuagint?

It seems to me that the Hebrew language doesn't have graphemes representing vowel sounds. On the other hand, the Greek language does. Also, I've heard that Josephus said that the Tetragrammaton (יהוה)...
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5 votes
9 answers
2k views

1 Cor 12:4-6 - Trinity or something else?

Note the text of 1 Cor 12:4-6 is written in parallelism: There are different gifts, but the same Spirit. There are different ministries, but the same Lord. There are different ways of working, but ...
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21 votes
4 answers
2k views

Is ἐγώ εἰμι testified in extra-biblical Greek as an expression for saying "I am he"?

This question arises from this insightful answer to another question about John 8:58. That answer makes an argument that the Greek ἐγώ εἰμι (literally "I am") is the wording used to translate the ...
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7 votes
7 answers
1k views

Is Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 equivalent to God's "I am" statement in Exodus 3:14?

Is Jesus' "I am" statement in John 8:58 equivalent to God's "I am" in Exodus 3:14? What is the meaning of "I am" in John 8:58 and what is the meaning of "I am" in Exodus 3:14?
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6 votes
8 answers
379 views

Are there two separate reasons given for wanting to stone Jesus?

Beginning in Chapter 5, John details how the Jews wanted to kill Jesus. First, the intent is described: for making Himself equal to God (5:18). Then the manner of death they picked up stones to throw ...
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3 votes
8 answers
4k views

Does John 21:24-25 indicate John didn't write this Gospel?

The below 2 verses in the Gospel of John seem to indicate that "John" was not the true author of this Gospel. This intertextual proof seems to indicate that it was him because of the usage of ...
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5 votes
6 answers
1k views

Was Christ's statement in John 8:24 a claim of deity, and why would the Jews follow-up with "Who are you?" (8:25)?

John 8:23-25: "And He was saying to them, 'You are from below, I am from above; you are of this world, I am not of this world. 24Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless ...
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2 votes
8 answers
411 views

Jesus says plainly he is a man - does John 8:40 preclude him from also being God?

They answered and said to him, “Abraham is our father.” Jesus said to them, “If you are Abraham’s children, do the deeds of Abraham. But as it is, you are seeking to kill me, a man who has told you ...
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7 votes
3 answers
1k views

"I am the Christ" vs. "I am he" in the Synoptics (Matt 24:5 // Mark 13:6 // Luke 21:8)

In a prior Q&A, we discussed the Semitic background of Jesus' statements recorded in the Gospels as ἐγώ εἰμι (= I am [he]). My understanding based on the answer there and a follow-up Q&A was ...
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-2 votes
2 answers
1k views

Why did Jesus did not utter the whole phrase "ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν" in John 8:58? [closed]

Why did Jesus only say "ἐγὼ εἰμί" rather than, "ἐγὼ εἰμί ὁ ὤν"?
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4 votes
4 answers
1k views

"I am" in Greek Septuagint translation of Exodus 3:14 vs. John 8:58 - how do they compare?

Exodus 3:14 YLT And God saith unto Moses, 'I AM THAT WHICH I AM;' He saith also, 'Thus dost thou say to the sons of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. How does the translation of the Greek ...
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3 votes
2 answers
333 views

Did Jesus speak pidgin or ungrammatically at John 8:58?

Every native speaker can intuitively tell that "Before Abraham was born, I am" is not grammatical English. To take "I am" as a title of God is equivalent to "Before Abraham ...
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