Linked Questions

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Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? [duplicate]

Why is the Greek word Θεὸς in John 1:1c treated as a proper noun in English Translation? John 1:1 New International Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word ...
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6answers
8k views

What language did Jesus commonly speak?

According to Mark 15:34 (ESV): And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, “Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?” which means, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” Jesus spoke Aramaic in ...
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6answers
4k views

What arguments exist that would refute the theory concerning Aramaic primacy of the New Testament?

Many Nestorian and some Seventh Day Adventist scholars assert that the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic (such as Paul Younan and George Lamsa). What scholarly arguments exist that would ...
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4answers
60k views

Why does Paul get annoyed with the slave girl in Acts 16?

The story in Acts 16 of the demon-possessed slave girl is a curious story to me for many reasons. If it's better to break up my questions into several, I can do so; but for now I'd like to keep them ...
20
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5answers
4k views

Is there a modern English translation of the Bible that uses the second-person plural pronoun?

I'm looking for a modern translation of the Bible (ideally in the public domain) that retains the distinction between second-person plural and second-person singular. In Early Modern English (the ...
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6answers
22k views

What does “My Lord and my God” Mean?

John 20:28: Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!” Why both words? Doesn't God imply "Lord" as well? I'm assuming this has something to do with the exact original text?
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4answers
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Why John 1:1 in (DRB)(Douay-Rheims Bible) is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate?

John 1:1 in DRB (Douay-Rheims) is: "... and the Word was God." This is not literal translation from the Latin Vulgate. John 1:1 LV: "...et Deus erat Verbum." I think the literal English ...
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2answers
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Proper translation of John 1:1

Is there any particular reason why "kai Theós ēn ho Lógos" is translated "and the Word was God" and not "and God was the Word"?
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7answers
1k views

What is the significance of the definite article in 1 Cor 14:2?

In John MacArthur's Bible Commentary, he says that in 1 Cor 14:2, before God there is no definite article so it could be translated "a god" instead of "God." In some Greek texts ...
11
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6answers
2k views

John 1:1 - How would Λόγος (Logos) be understood in Hellenistic philosophy?

In John 1:1 (NIV, KJV, ESV, NASB, RSV, ASV, NRSV), the text is often translated as something close to In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. "the Word" as ...
6
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7answers
266 views

What is the meaning of the phrase 'only true God' in John 17:3?

In John 17:3, Jesus addressed the Father as 'the only true God'' which semantically means that no one else is true God except the Father. However, Jesus is also addressed as ''God'' in the same gospel ...
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4answers
298 views

In the gospel of John is it reasonable to make the following connection?

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” ‭‭John‬ ‭1:1‬ ‭ The Word was God “Sanctify them in the truth; your word is truth.” ‭‭John‬ ‭17:17‬ ‭ God’s Word is ...
4
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2answers
867 views

In John 1:1-3, translated pronouns as “him” or “it”? (Neuter or masculine?)

Disclaimer: I don't know any foreign languages except Pig Latin. This is probably a dumb question, but... In Koine, I believe "logos" is a masculine noun. Pronouns for "logos" such as Οὗτος are ...
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5answers
313 views

Is John 1:2 redundant?

Question If we look at the text of John 1:1-2, the second verse might seem a bit redundant. 1 Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. 2 οὗτος ἦν ἐν ἀρχῇ πρὸς τὸν θεόν. ...