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First, I saw some answers here to someone’s question about translating James 2:18 (How should James 2:18 be translated?), and I wished to comment there, rather than starting a new question altogether—-but I was not allowed to comment there since I do not yet have any reputation. My apologies if I am not going about this in the preferred manner.

My question is if this hypothetical translation of James 2:18 is tenable:

But someone will say that you [the “someone” just mentioned] have faith and I have works. Show me your faith without the works, and I will show you my faith by my works.

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    It would help in the understanding of this question if it also included a commonly accepted translation, and you marked the critical parts of your version that you think might not be considered tenable. Commented Aug 7 at 22:45
  • @Nathan hi welcome to BHSE. From a quick look is it that you would like to bring the Christian Standard Bible translation into line with the New American Standard Bible's position on the direct speech question, which is discussed in depth on that other thread?
    – FelixLXX
    Commented Aug 7 at 22:46
  • Specifically, is it possible that “someone” is the antecedent of “you”? I did not omit quotation marks out of neglect, but on purpose. It makes sense for James‘ opponent to boast of his faith while accusing James of having only works. It does not make sense for James’ opponent to emphasize his works while accusing James of having only faith. The manner in which this verse is typically translated presents a scenario that is exactly backwards from what would seem to naturally fit in the context. Commented Aug 9 at 1:10
  • To put it another way, is it possible that James’ intended meaning could be expressed idiomatically as “But someone will say that he has faith and that I have only works; let him try to show me his faith without any works, and I will show him my faith by my works.” Commented Aug 9 at 1:17
  • @Ray Butterworth I think I may have failed significantly by not tagging your username when responding. In case you failed to realize that I had replied to you because of this failure, please see my comments above. Thank you Commented Sep 1 at 18:28

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The OP's translation omits an important pronoun. Here is my literal translation of James 2:18 -

But someone will say, "You have faith and I have works." Show to me your faith without works and I will show to you my faith by my works.

Note that the highlighted pronoun "you" is absent from the OP's version. That pronoun is important for establishing the proper sense of the James' point here.

James is making the point, stated twice, that:

James 2:17 - So too, faith by itself, if it does not result in action, is dead.

James 2:26 - ... faith without deeds is dead.

In James 2:18, James illustrates this point by reporting a rhetorical conversation between a "faith only" person (the "someone"), and himself. Thus, the "you" in V18 is James himself as he reports the remark of the "someone". He then responds in the second sentence of V18.

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  • It is precisely because James is making the point that faith apart from works is dead that it would be natural for James’ opponent to emphasize his own faith, in the absence of works, while accusing James of having only works and of not having genuine faith. But if his opponent says to James “You have faith and I have works,” this is exactly backwards from the emphasis that James’ opponent would be expected to make in this context. Commented Aug 9 at 1:25
  • @NathanGaleotti - that is also the poi nt - faith and works must go together and never be separated.
    – Dottard
    Commented Aug 9 at 2:10
  • In your translation above, you have the opponent of James saying: "’You have faith and I have works.’" You ended the quotation there, indicating that you take James to be saying “Show to me your faith without works and I will show to you my faith by my works.” It makes perfect sense for James to be saying these words, since he is especially emphasizing the importance of works in relation to faith. Commented Aug 13 at 13:02
  • Of course it is true that works without faith are dead too, but James is emphasizing the importance of works in verifying the genuineness of one’s faith rather than the other way around. In this context, we would expect James’ opponent to then be emphasizing his own faith in the absence of any verifying works. But you are insisting that James’ opponent is emphasizing his works in opposition to James’ faith, which makes no sense. Commented Aug 13 at 13:02
  • The opponent should be emphasizing his own faith in the absence of works while accusing James as having only works and not genuine faith, to which James could then aptly reply “Show to me your faith without works and I will show to you my faith by my works.” Commented Aug 13 at 13:03

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