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After David had finished talking with Saul, Jonathan became one in spirit with David, and he loved him as himself.

Here, there is a definition of oneness. Oneness is loving someone as yourself. Therefore, when Jesus says that he and the Father are one (John 10:30), he means that he loves the Father as himself.

Love God and your neighbor as yourself.

Does the verse change the understanding of “oneness” away from being a statement of divinity within the Holy Trinity doctrine? Does it open up the interpretation that being “one in Spirit with God” means to love God as you love yourself, and therefore there can be any number of persons as part of Holy Unity? There would no longer be a Holy Trinity because Jesus himself was not claiming to be God but only that he had a Spirit from God and therefore was one in Spirit with God the Father through love.

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    I think theology is based on far more than your two texts!! 1 Sam 18:1 does NOT say that David and Jonathon were "one" but "one in spirit". By contrast, Jesus never said that He was "one in spirit with the Father". Please do not misquote Scripture. Lastly, David's love for Jonathon appears to be carrying out the instruction in Lev 19:18 to "love your neighbor as yourself". Thus, your assertion that 1 Sam 18:1 as a "definition" of oneness" is fallaciousness.
    – Dottard
    Commented Aug 1 at 10:39
  • According my viewpoint, you would explain in what manner this Bible passage does change - "completely" - the teology of Christianity. Commented Aug 1 at 10:43
  • I don’t understand any other conclusion other than that “one” and “one in spirit” are synonymous expressions. Commented Aug 1 at 10:43
  • The Spirit comes from the Father, yes? That’s what Jesus said. To have the Spirit means to be one in Spirit. To do this means to love the Father. The Spirit is an expression of love. To love the Father, everyone, even enemies as you love yourself. That is being one in Spirit with God. So Jesus was not literally saying that he was God, but that he loved God as he loved himself and he taught that everyone should love in the same way as that so that the world becomes one in Spirit with God? Jesus came from the Father means he had the spirit of the Father. Jesus was symbolically a spirt of love. Commented Aug 1 at 11:03
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    This is a place for honest questions, not for preaching disguised as questions and then followed by attempts to reinforce the message in comments.
    – WGroleau
    Commented Aug 1 at 14:38

2 Answers 2

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Even if the claim is correct, the verse doesn't "completely change the theology of Christianity".

At most it provides a minor support for unitarianism (one supreme being) and binitarianism (two supreme beings, one choosing to be subordinate to the other), and not for the doctrine of the Trinity mystery (three supreme beings that also exist as a single being in a way that can't be understood by the mind of man except by analogy).

These theologies already exist; they aren't even slightly changed by this scripture.


As for the claim itself, it is based on the NIV translation "Jonathan became one in spirit with David".

The other translations don't have "one in spirit". E.g.:

  • KJV: "the soul of Jonathan was knit with the soul of David".
  • NLT: "there was an immediate bond between them".
  • CSB: "Jonathan was bound to David in close friendship".
  • NASB: "Jonathan committed himself to David".
  • NET: "Jonathan and David became bound together in close friendship".

Looking at these translations (and others) it's easy to see the underlying commonality and the intended meaning.

In the original Hebrew, the niphal verb קָשַׁר (qāšar) means "to be bound, be bound up".

One shouldn't rely upon a single translation of the Bible.

The NIV's use of the expression "one in spirit", is simply their way of conveying the original meaning into English. It is not a literal translation, and cannot be used out of context for doctrinal proof.

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  • Can 1 Samuel 18 at least be considered a biblical definition of one, oneness, one in spirit? Or is it a completely wrong translation because the Hebrew speaks of them conspiring together in person, not that they are one in spirit? The Hebrew word “nephash” does not mean spirit. biblehub.com/text/1_samuel/18-1.htm Commented Aug 1 at 18:02
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    @ReturnOfRoamer, "Can 1 Samuel 18 at least be considered a biblical definition of one, oneness, one in spirit?". If you are asking whether "he loved him as himself" and "one in spirit" have very similar meanings, then yes. If you are asking about the word "spirit", or the word "one", then no. (See my addition to the answer.) Commented Aug 1 at 18:29
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    The theological doctrine is an extremely exaggerated misinterpretation of the dramatic poetic Hebrew language that simply means like brotherhood. Not brothers and sisters, nor sons and fathers in the biological sense. That’s how I have seen it happen in real life. There’s nothing supernatural occurring. Commented Aug 1 at 18:58
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Short answer: The doctrine of the Trinity is not based solely on this single verse so it wouldn't sufficiently change it. Now, if it were definitively proven that “one” in this context does not imply a unity of essence or substance, it could challenge the use of this verse in support of the Trinity.

1) Looking at John 10

John 10:30 says:

30 I and My Father are one.”

The first thing to note is:

  • Part of the meaning of this statement is lost in translation from Greek to English. Jesus uses the "neuter" form of the Greek word for "one" here, implying that they are "unity." Rather than saying that Jesus and God are the same person, Jesus is claiming that He and God are unified as one, a partial explanation of the Trinity. [3]

The verses right before this are also important. John 10:28-29 says:

28 And I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; neither shall anyone snatch them out of My hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to Me, is greater than all; and no one is able to snatch them out of My Father’s hand.

Ellicott's Commentary lists several arguments we can take as reasons for not defining oneness in this verse as being "loving someone as yourself". I will summarize the points:

  • Identity: The last clause of John 10:29 is identical with the last clause of John 10:28 if we identify “Father’s” with “My.” This is something that Jesus does formally.
  • Jesus' assertion of divine power: John 10:28-29 speak of a power greater than all, and these words are an assertion that in the infinity of All-mighty Power, the Son is one with the Father.
  • Unity of essence, not person: The Greek word for “one” is neuter, indicating that the unity is of essence, not of person. This means that “The Son is of one substance with the Father.”
  • Distinctness and co-ordination: The use of the plural “are” asserts distinctness, countering Sabellianism, and the “one” asserts co-ordination, countering Arianism.
  • More than unity of will: Despite attempts to interpret these words as implying only a unity of will between the Father and the Son, they assert both oneness of power and oneness of nature.
  • Divinity of Jesus: The best answer to all attempts to attach any meaning lower than that of the divinity of our Lord to these His words is found here, as in the parallel instance in John 8:58-59, in the conduct of the Jews themselves.

John 8:58-59 Jesus said to them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM.” Then they took up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.

  • Reaction of the Jews: The Jews sought to punish Jesus by stoning, because they believed that Jesus, being a man, was making himself God (John 10:31-33).

31 Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, “Many good works I have shown you from My Father. For which of those works do you stone Me?”

33 The Jews answered Him, saying, “For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make Yourself God.”

On a side note. I think the fact that no church fathers interpret "one" with this definition is evidence for it not being used in such a manner as defined.

2) Looking at 1 Samuel 18:1

Now when he had finished speaking to Saul, the soul of Jonathan was knit to the soul of David, and Jonathan loved him as his own soul.

The word for "was knit" is:

  • qashar: to bind, league together, conspire
  • Original Word: קָשַׁר

It should be noted that the original languages of these two books are different. The Old Testament was written in Hebrew, while the New Testament was written in Greek.

This word qashar is the same word found in Genesis 44:30.

30 “Now therefore, when I come to your servant my father, and the lad is not with us, since his life is bound up in the lad’s life, 31 it will happen, when he sees that the lad is not with us, that he will die. So your servants will bring down the gray hair of your servant our father with sorrow to the grave.

  • The bond of friendship which Jonathan formed with David was so evidently the main point, that in 1 Samuel 18:1 the writer commences with the love of Jonathan to David... [10]

Clincher: What is something that is important in making this comparison of oneness being defined as: "Oneness is loving someone as yourself" in both 1 Samuel 18 and John 10?

The presence of the word love. 1 Samuel 18 makes it clear that we are indeed talking about love.

Jonathan loved him as his own soul.

On the other hand, the relevant verses of John 10 say nothing about love which would indicate that Jesus is talking about it.

I conclude then that there is not sufficient evidence to read John 10 with the definition proposed for oneness as "loving someone as yourself".

References:
3 What does John 10:30 mean? BibleRef.com. (n.d.). BibleRef.com. https://www.bibleref.com/John/10/John-10-30.html
5 John 10 Ellicott’s commentary for English readers. (n.d.). https://biblehub.com/commentaries/ellicott/john/10.htm
10 1 Samuel 18 Keil and Delitzsch OT Commentary. (n.d.). https://biblehub.com/commentaries/kad/1_samuel/18.htm
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    KJV JOHN 12:49: For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me, he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I should speak. (Jesus speaks on behalf of the Father like a power of attorney in a court of law who speaks speaks on behalf of his client who is not present in the courtroom. A prophet.) Commented Aug 2 at 9:00
  • @ReturnOfRoamer I agree that Jesus spoke on behalf of the Father. I think that the evidence still stands as a low probability for using the given definition for "one".
    – Jason_
    Commented Aug 2 at 10:50
  • John 10:30 should be translated as “I and the one Father exist.” ? Commented Aug 2 at 11:05
  • Matthew 5:41 is an example where the adjective “one” is written after the word it describes (Greek translation) so the same could be applied to John 10:30. biblehub.com/text/matthew/5-41.htm Commented Aug 2 at 11:17
  • arguably the Apostles were also God / trihity John 17:22 And the glory which You gave Me I have given them, that they may be one just as We are one: Commented Aug 2 at 13:18

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