I can see why a catholic commentator would make such an association between Isa 22:22 and Matt 16:19. The language is very superficially similar. So, let us examine them more closely.
Isa 22:22
Since this passage in in Hebrew, and the NT quotes/alludes to this passage in Greek, let me quote the Greek translation available to Jesus at the time, the LXX:
καὶ δώσω τὴν δόξαν Δαυὶδ αὐτῷ, καὶ ἄρξει, καὶ οὐκ ἔσται ὁ ἀντιλέγων.
καὶ δώσω αὐτῷ τὴν κλεῖδα οἴκου Δαυὶδ ἐπὶ τῷ ὤμῳ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἀνοίξει, καὶ
οὐκ ἔσται ὁ ἀποκλείων, καὶ κλείσει καὶ οὐκ ἔσται ὁ ἀνοίγων. = And I
will give him the glory of David; and he shall rule, and there shall
be none to speak against him: and I will give him the key of the house
of David [upon] his shoulder; and he shall open, and there shall be
none to shut; and he shall shut, and there shall be none to open.
Matt 16:19
δώσω σοι τὰς κλεῖδας τῆς βασιλείας τῶν οὐρανῶν, καὶ ὃ ἐὰν δήσῃς ἐπὶ
τῆς γῆς ἔσται δεδεμένον ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς, καὶ ὃ ἐὰν λύσῃς ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς
ἔσται λελυμένον ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς. = I will give to you the keys of the
kingdom of the heavens, and whatever you might bind on the earth shall
have been bound in the heavens, and whatever you might loose on the
earth shall have been loosed in the heavens."
Note that there are one common element between these two passages namely:
- key/keys (not a perfect match!)
But that is about all. Here are the differences which make the connection between these two passages, tenuous at best.
Isa 22:22 |
Matt 16:19 |
key |
keys |
key of the house of David |
keys of the kingdom of heavens |
open/shut |
bind/loose |
simple future indicative active |
future perfect passive |
The last entry in the table requires further explanation. In Isa 22:22 we have a verb with a simple future tense, viz, "he shall open", etc. By contrast, the tense of the verb in Matt 16:19 is far more complex. In commenting on this curious grammatical construction, J B Phillips in an appendix to his translation of the New Testament in Modern English offers these comments:
Matthew 16:19 and 18:18, “forbidding” and “permitting”. There is a
very curious Greek construction here, viz, a simple future followed by
the perfect participle passive. If Jesus had meant to say quite
simply, “Whatever you forbid on earth will be forbidden in Heaven”,
can anyone explain why the simple future passive is not used? It
seems to me that if the words of Jesus are accurately reported here,
and I have no reason to doubt it, then the force of these sayings is
that Jesus’ true disciples will be so led by the Spirit that they will
be following the heavenly pattern. In other words what they “forbid”
or “permit” on earth will be consonant with the Divine rules.
Thus, it becomes apparent that Isa 22:22 is talking about the terrestrial house of David; but Matt 16:19 is talking about the spiritual kingdom of heaven.