I was teaching from Mark 3 using the NRSV and asked for someone to read starting in v19b (after the section break).

19 and Judas Iscariot, who betrayed him.
Jesus and Beelzebul
Then he went home; 20 and the crowd came together again, so that they could not even eat.

No one spoke up and I found they were all using the NIV (or similar) which has "then he went home" with verse 20 (so with no section break mid-verse) and were confused what 19b meant.

19 and Judas Iscariot, who betrayed him.
Jesus Accused by His Family and by Teachers of the Law
20 Then Jesus entered a house, and again a crowd gathered, so that he and his disciples were not even able to eat.

The UBS GNT (4th) has the versification as the NIV, NET, ESV, etc have it. Is there something in the textual apparatus (either NA or UBS) that would indicate why the RSV/NRSV break this differently? The USB footnote indicates a paragraph break for the RSV/NRSV after verse 19 ὃς καὶ παρέδωκεν αὐτόν) which is accurate, but in those translations the verse also includes Καὶ ἔρχεται εἰς οἶκον. Or is this just an oversight? The NRSVue aligns with the Greek versification.

This is obviously not an important issue, but a matter of curiosity nonetheless.


1 Answer 1


Well, that IS curious. Not only the RSV, but the ASV also has the translation of Καὶ ἔρχεται εἰς οἶκον moved into verse 19. I was thinking, "The ASV is older, perhaps it'll give us a clue." So, I checked Westcott and Hort and Tregelles (the two texts that the ASV is mainly based on) thinking that an older translation might help indicate why the different placement. Nope, both W&H and Tregelles have the clause in verse 20. So, the versification of the underlying text has it one way, but the versification of the translated text places it differently! The whole way back to the ASV.

Perhaps older?

Turns out it's Textus Receptus. So, as Tevye would say, "Tradition!" [Edit: So, I think the answer to your question is that the discrepancy is caused by the translator's attempt to help Teachers navigate the change over time in the versification of the underlying Greek text.]

See: textusreceptusbibles.com/Interlinear/41003019. You might need to put Mark 3:19 in the drop-downs. But, you should see that the Greek clause is positioned at the end of verse 19.

Is there a "curious question" badge? :-)

  • Thanks Mike! I assumed (wrongly!) that verses were fairly codified. While realizing variants mean some are truncated or missing I assume that agreed-upon text would be consistent. Thanks for pointing me to the TR site
    – mrturtle
    Commented May 16 at 17:07

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