I believe that 2 Thes. 2.6-9; has been mistranslated; V.7, should read "until among the mist (G3319) be fufilled (G1096)" instead of "out of the way be taken"; and "coming" in v.9, is specifically referring to "Christ's" coming as it is previously in v8; and not being in reference to the alleged parousia of the "son of perdition", as all translations seem to portrait. It is unusual to me, for the writer to use this word parousia, as to Christ, and then referring to the Son of perdition, in the following verse.

This meaning of the coming in v.9; as referring to Christ, is brought out by reading "after" (G2596) as to the timing of Christ's return, as being "after" Satans power that is to be revealed in the son of perdition.

The timing of Christ's return being the whole subject matter of the chapter (2 Thes. 2.1-3); gives futher support that "after" should not to be understood as "according to".

Also, below is a possibile interpretation, which could shed light on understanding the seeming grammatical difficultties within the text; the subject of the "serpent bearer" constellation; and its significance to the coming hero of old, found within the belief systems of antiquity (Rev.9.1-2; 11).

Along with the importance of the mazzoroth to God's appionted times, within the biblical scripture, all this, should be taken under consideration, in interpreting the text under review.

V6. Even this time, the withholder ( i.e Ophiuchus the serpent bearer)enter image description here you know; unto the revealing he, (the son of perdition) in his time. V7. For the mystery of iniquity is now at work; only the bearer will (i.e withhold); intill among (G1537) the midst (G3319) be fulfilled (G1096) (when the 13th Babylonion constellation Opiuchus was recognized or, added by Nasa in 2011; being among the midst of the woman, Israel, i.e the constellation Virgo, cp. Rev.12.1-5); V8. and then shall be revealed the wicked; whom the Lord shall consume, with the spirit of His mouth, and shall destroy with the brightnes of His coming, V9. who's coming (Christ's) is after (in time); the working of the Satan; with all the lying mighty works, signs and wonders.

God allows the lie to come before Christ's coming, and gives them over because they loved not the truth; then Christ will come; here it seems as if Paul is shedding light on why the power of Satan must come first; it is because there must be a testing that must come upon the world, to prove who is who (2 Thes. 2.10-12; Rev.3.10)


1 Answer 1


There are essentially three aspects to this question about the man of lawlessness in 2 Thess 2:

  1. Translation of κατά in 2 Thess 2:9

The translation of κατά depends upon whether it is used in relation with a genitive or accusative. Now, the word following κατά in V9 is ἐνέργειαν which is accusative.

Accordingly, the meaning of κατά cannot be "against" as this is only possible with the genitive. This is why almost all versions correctly render it "according to" or similar.

  1. The Antecedent of οὗ in V9

The structure of 2 Thess 2 describing the coming of the lawless one has Paul listing a series of characteristics about this nefarious character, viz:

  • V3 - The second advent will not occur until the lawless one is revealed
  • V4a - He will oppose and exalt himself above every so-called god or object of worship.
  • V4b - So he will seat himself in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God.
  • V6 - And you know what is now restraining him, so that he may be revealed at the proper time.
  • V8 - And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will slay with the breath of His mouth and annihilate by the majesty of His arrival.
  • V9 - who will be accompanied by the working of Satan, with every kind of power, sign, and false wonder, 10and with every wicked deception directed against those who are perishing, because they refused the love of the truth that would have saved them.

Note that whole subject of this chapter is the lawless one. The antecedent of the pronoun οὗ (whose) is thus the exactly the same as the ὃν (whom) in V8 - the noun which immediately precedes the ὃν, namely, ὁ ἄνομος = "the lawless [one]" (and NOT Lord Jesus).

Now if, as the OP incorrectly and ungrammatically asserts, V9 is about the coming of Jesus, then we have Jesus' second coming with the following characteristics:

  • accompanied by, or, according to the works of Satan
  • with every kind of power, sign, and false wonder
  • with every wicked deception directed against those who are perishing,

Such an assertion is untenable.

  1. V7 Translation

Here is my literal translation of V7:

For the mystery of lawlessness is already working; only the One restraining presently until out of the midst he might be gone.

A slightly better translation in better, more idiomatic English is provided by BLB:

For the mystery of lawlessness is working already; there is only the one at present restraining it, until he might be gone out of the midst.

As a final foot-note, I object to using ancient Greek and Arabic astrology to interpret the NT and so have ignored that aspect of the OP's question.


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