Jesus said, according to scripture:

Matthew 26:29 NKJV

29 But I say to you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it new with you in My Father’s kingdom.” (Also, Mark 14:25, Luke 22:18)

However in John 19 NKJV seems to indicate that Jesus "received" the sour wine, it says:

28 After this, Jesus, knowing that all things were now accomplished, that the Scripture might be fulfilled, said, “I thirst!” 29 Now a vessel full of sour wine was sitting there; and they filled a sponge with sour wine, put it on hyssop, and put it to His mouth. 30 So when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, “It is finished!” And bowing His head, He gave up His spirit.

Also in a parallel gospel Matthew 27:48 NKJV

48 Immediately one of them ran and took a sponge, filled it with sour wine and put it on a reed, and offered it to Him to drink.

And in Mark 15:36 NKJV

36 Then someone ran and filled a sponge full of sour wine, put it on a reed, and offered it to Him to drink, saying, “Let Him alone; let us see if Elijah will come to take Him down.”

I also note that the Greek for sour wine is oxos and the normal Greek word for wine is oinos.

If it was vinegar, vinegar is made from fermented wine correct? Which would still mean it is from the vine?

What is the reason for this? Was it a different type of wine that Jesus was talking about?

  • 1
    It's vinegar. Wine gone off. Alcohol turned to acid.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Apr 8 at 18:47
  • 1
    @Jason According to one interpretation I heard at my lecture few years ago, this "sour wine", or as Nigel J says above, vinegar, was used for Christ as an anaesthetic; but He did not drink it; perhaps people wanted to prolong His life on Cross to see, as they were expecting, if God would have helped Him. Commented Apr 8 at 18:54
  • 3
    All supposed 'contradictions' should be viewed as opinion-based, in my view. They are opinions until genuine knowledge explains the facts.
    – Nigel J
    Commented Apr 8 at 21:43
  • 2
    The Jewish authorities had incited the people to wanting Jesus dead. He was publicly whipped, spit upon, beaten with a rod on his head, crowned with thorns, and humiliated. The spectators who had not been swayed to think that Jesus deserved this treatment were few. Thus, the reason acid, not water, was given him was not to ease his suffering, but to worsen it. It was a continuation of the abuse against him. Commented Apr 9 at 0:39
  • Can you say how 'it seems like He did…' is supported by 'they filled a sponge… and put it to His mouth'? That doesn't quite equate to 'they forced it on him' but what useful difference do you see? Commented Apr 9 at 19:58

5 Answers 5


This is less complicated than it appears.

First, notice that all the accounts of the last supper never use the word "wine", but always express what was drunk as "the fruit of the vine". Matt 26:29, Mark 14:25, Luke 22:18. While this appears to be a prolix, it is actually important, because it was not fermented - it was Passover.

Further, when Jesus drank, He did not refer to the "drink" but always the "cup". This remained true even when Paul recounts the experience in 1 Cor 11:25.

Now, the incident on the cross where Jesus, to quench His thirst, drank sour wine or vinegar (Greek, ὄξος oxos), could not be described as "fruit of the vine" - it could have been made from anything (and sometimes was to save money). I also note that in the NT, the word ὄξος (oxos) only occurs in relation to the Jesus on the cross as per Matt 27:48, Mark 15:36, Luke 23:36, John 19:29, 30.

Thus, there is no contradiction.

  • 1
    +1. I may have to ask what all "fruit of the vine" could be then. That being said, could it not have been fermented even though it was Passover?
    – Jason_
    Commented Apr 9 at 3:41
  • @Jason_ - "fruit of the vine" is pure unfermented grape juice.
    – Dottard
    Commented Apr 9 at 8:32
  • 2
    Wine is permitted on Passover, only the products of fermentation of the named grains are chametz. Wine is even an integral part of a Seder meal. Commented Apr 9 at 8:36
  • @VladimirFГероямслава - that is true now and in some traditions. Not in all. The practice then is a different question.
    – Dottard
    Commented Apr 9 at 10:20
  • @Dottard A Seder did not exist, but there is no reason why wine would be forbidden. A good survey about wine in the second temple times is byustudies.byu.edu/article/… It does mention the use of water instead of wine but for different reasons. Commented Apr 9 at 11:17

There are a number of ways to deal with this apparent contradiction.

  1. Table Fellowship, not wine-drinking per se. Jesus did not say that he would drink no wine at all; he said he would drink no wine "with you." He knew this would be his last Passover Seder. What he said was quite true. A footnote in the NABRE takes this viewpoint:

Although his death will interrupt the table fellowship he has had with the disciples, Jesus confidently predicts his vindication by God and a new table fellowship with them at the banquet of the kingdom.

  1. Holy Communion, not mere wine-drinking. In context, Jesus is referring specifically to drinking the cup of his blood, not actual wine. In this view, partaking in Communion is a foretaste of the Heavenly Banquet.

Drink from it, all of you, 28 for this is my blood of the covenant, which will be shed on behalf of many for the forgiveness of sins. 29 I tell you, from now on I shall not drink this fruit of the vine until the day when I drink it with you new in the kingdom of my Father.

  1. "Sour Wine" doesn't count. The wine that he was given on the Cross was closer to vinegar than real wine.

  2. Jesus expressed an intention, not a prophecy. Let's not nit-pick.

  • +1. This is well ordered. Although, I had considered it prophetic... At least, in the sense that it foretells a future event. In this case, the fellowship that believers will enjoy with Christ in that kingdom. Which I notice that ray grant includes at the end of his.
    – Jason_
    Commented Apr 9 at 3:40

Mark 15:23

And they gave him to drink wine mingled with myrrh: but he received it not.

He received it not.

Mark 15:36

And one ran and filled a spunge full of vinegar, and put it on a reed, and gave him to drink, saying, Let alone; let us see whether Elias will come to take him down.

'Gave him to drink' does not mean he received it. It is not wine (oinos) it is vinegar (oxos).

Lucas 22:15

And he said unto them, With desire I have desired to eat this passover with you before I suffer:

Passover was consumed with wine not vinegar.

Mark 14:23

And he took the cup, and when he had given thanks, he gave it to them: and they all drank of it.

They drank wine not vinegar.

Luke 23:42

And he said unto Jesus, Lord, remember me when thou comest into thy kingdom.

Jesus had not yet come in His kingdom when hanging on the cross.

Marcus 14:25

Verily I say unto you, I will drink no more of the fruit of the vine, until that day that I drink it new in the kingdom of God.

Matthew 26:29

But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.

'Fruit of the vine refers to the passover wine he drank with the disciples not to vinegar. He will drink it new; fresh wine. And He will drink it in the kingdom of God with the disciples. But was not come in His kingdom yet as the malefactor stated.

Mark 14:50

And they all forsook him, and fled.

He was not with His disciples when hanged on the cross.

Jesus did not drink wine before he said he would.

  • +1 Nicely supported. Also notice the insulting allusion to the contemporary Roman toilet practice of using a sponge on a stick to clean oneself. A modernized version might be like offering a vinegar-soaked roll of toilet paper.
    – Dieter
    Commented May 23 at 14:54

The fruit of the vine He is talking about in Matthew will occur when those who are called in Israel will be enjoying the fruits of Christ shed blood on behalf of their sins.

It is in reference to the new covenant in His blood that was shed for Israel. That fruit of the vine will come in its full effect at a later date.

He took the cup, gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you. 28 This is My blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. 29I tell you, I will not drink of this fruit of the vine from now on until that day when I drink it anew with you in My Father’s kingdom.”

In the same way, after supper He took the cup, saying, "This cup is the new covenant in My blood, which is poured out for you. Luke 22:20

And in this way all Israel will be saved. As it is written: “The deliverer will come from Zion; he will turn godlessness away from Jacob. And this is my covenant with them when I take away their sins.” Roman's 11:27

And because of this, of a new covenant He is mediator, that, death having come, for redemption of the transgressions under the first covenant, those called may receive the promise of the age-during inheritance, Hebrew's 9:15

They have a promise from him.

On the other hand, the sour wine he drank, was not from the fruit of His vine. It was symbolic from those who hated him that is stated in psalm 69

So when Jesus had received the sour wine, He said, “It is finished!

That was actually prophesied in Psalm 69:22 The sour vinegar he drank, is recorded in Psalm 69.

And they give for my food gall, And for my thirst cause me to drink vinegar Psalm 69:22

Truly you know my reproach, shame, and disgrace. All my enemies are known toe you. 20Insults broke my heart. I despaired and looked for sympathy; but there was none, for comforters, but I found none. 21They put poison in my food, in my thirst they forced me to drink vinegar.

In fact reading, Psalm 69 shows the difference between those who believed in him and those who did not and persecuted him in the day when He was sent to Israel.

Psalm 69: 21-28 signifies the sour wine of those who hated him. It also tells about their future. See 69: 27:28

  • I don't read the sour wine given to him on the cross as being given by those who hated him. In Matthew's account he is first offered wine mixed with gall by Roman soldiers, which he declines. Later, after he cries out to God, an onlooker runs to get a sponge soaked with wine in he does drink that. There is no indication that this was done unkindly in my reading. Commented Apr 8 at 20:23
  • @Dan Fefferman. At first it does sound like an act of kindness, but reading Psalm 69 where that event had been prophesied says just the opposite. It's only by reading Psalm 69 where that event is prophesied about giving Him gall for food and vinegar to drink. By looking at that previous verse it shows that no one comforts him or gave him sympathy, even even when they gave him gall for food which is bitter and a poisonous herb). Vinegar It is offered (in cruelty) to a thirsty man Psalm 69:22 (figurative for harshness lack of sympathy);"Brown Briggs
    – Sherrie
    Commented Apr 8 at 21:41
  • I see how the sufferer in Psalm 69 could be Jesus if one looks at the crucifixion through the narrow lens of vs 22. But the following verses rule Jesus out... because Jesus, on the Cross, said "Father forgive them." The sufferer in Psalm 69: says "Make their eyes so dim they cannot see; keep their backs ever feeble. Pour out your wrath upon them; let the fury of your anger overtake them...Heap punishment upon their punishment." This cannot be Jesus. Commented Apr 9 at 0:02
  • @Dan Fefferman We know, Jesus did forgive them and they rejected him once again after He was risen from the dead. It's interesting how Paul quotes the very next verse in Romans 11:9. It is very same verse that is used in Psalm 69:22
    – Sherrie
    Commented Apr 9 at 0:50
  • This psalm reminds me of the big break that happens in Isaiah 6:2. To proclaim the year of the LORD’s favor and the day of our God’s vengeance,
    – Sherrie
    Commented Apr 9 at 1:01

Drink With You Let us not leave out important phrases. Jesus talked about drinking with the disciples. (Matthew 26:29) Being given sour wine (vinegar) to deaden the pain on the cross is hardly what Jesus was referring to.

And recall that He is linking the "drinking" with the Kingdom of God. So any fulfilment to be considered must involve this grand topic.

So do we have any record mentioned in the Bible of His subsequent drinking later on? Absolutely!

They killed Him by hanging Him in a tree, but God raised Him from the dead on the third day and caused Him to be seen.
He was not seen by all the people, but by witnesses whom God had already chosen---by us who ate and drank with Him after He rose from the dead. (Acts 10:39-41)

We know that Jesus stayed on the Earth for at least forty (40) days after His resurrection. (Acts 1:3). So during this time of 40 days if we must not think that He limited His refreshments to only water and goat's milk, then it is reasonable to conclude that wine was part of his drinking regimen along with His meals.

Also we are informed that Jesus spent the 40 days teaching about the Kingdom of God. Why did He do this? It was because He was the risen King who had triumphed over, not just death, but over all evil forces:

"All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to Me. Therefore, go and make disciples..." (Jesus, Matthew 28:18)

That power is like the working of His mighty strength, which He exerted in Christ when He raised Him from the dead and seated Him at His right hand in the heavenly realms, far above all rule and authority, power and dominion, and every title that can be given, not only in the present age but also in the one to come. (Ephesians 1:19-21; research Mark 14:62, Matthew 16:28)

Expert on the Subject Why was Jesus spending so much time teaching on the subject of the Kingdom of God? It was because He was the foremost expert on this topic...He was its crowned King! For this reason He had come into the world (John 18:37). For this reason He declared the Good News (Gospel, Matthew 4:17, 23): the Kingdom was at hand!

Like they say in the game of checkers when one reaches an objective on the opponent's side: King me! Jesus could look into the face of the High Priest, and say, "King Me!" He could look straight at Pilate, and say, "King Me!" Jesus could face every demon in hell, and say, "King Me!" And Jesus turns to each of us, and says, "King Me!"

Drink in the Kingdom Yes, what Jesus said at the Last Supper was a true prophecy, and it was fulfilled! He ate and drank with them (disciples) in the Kingdom! And if, as some Christian religions teach, that Jesus is "in the Communion table" rite, then Jesus continues to drink with us in His Kingdom!


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