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A few Muslims claim that Isaiah 29:18 is about the Quran what would you answer?

Isa 29:18 - On that day the deaf will hear the words of the scroll, and out of the deep darkness the eyes of the blind will see.

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    Mar 14 at 2:43

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That is a strange claim for any Muslim to make, given what scholars of Islam have stated about having a very low opinion of the Hebrew scriptures. They have effectively consigned the Law, the Writings, and the Prophets to their spiritual dustbin. Here is a sample:

"The Holy Book of Islam is revered as the product of God's message delivered directly to one human intelligence operating over a period of twenty-three years. In contrast, Muslims find the Christian Holy Book to consist of a varied collection of documents (including the Jewish Holy Book), all of independent authorship, spanning more than a thousand years...

The writings of the Old Testament, the Gospels and the Epistles, all represent vicarious experiences retold at second, third, or fourth hand by their authors with an additional reworking by redactors and editors...

Muslims argue that Christians and Jews were not fit custodians of their own Holy Books and that they tampered with them in various ways... The original form is irrecoverable and corruption has occurred in the present versions." Islam: the way of submission Solomon Nigosian (Crucible, 1987) last chapter, pages 193 to 195

This places the onus on those Muslims who make that claim about Isaiah 29:18 to prove that that one verse, at least, was never tampered with, and so can be taken as 100% accurate, and thus fit to be interpreted in an Islamic way.

To set about such a task, it would first be necessary for those "few Muslims" to be named, and direct quotations made from them to see if that claim about Isaiah 29:18 is the case, and that they have Islamic, scholarly qualifications to make such a claim. Then the process could begin of examining their rationale in light of their otherwise condemnatory view of the Hebrew Scriptures. That, in turn, would raise the question, If that one verse is the original, and accurate, what other verses might not also be God-inspired? Until more detailed information is provided by the OP, no real progress can be made in delving into an answer.

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Interpreting Isaiah 29:18 as a prophecy about the Quran is not supported by the context or the broader message of the passage. If we look at it in its original context, Isaiah 29 is addressing spiritual blindness and deafness of the people of Israel. The verse you mentioned is part of a larger passage.

  • Isaiah 29:9-10 NKJV

    The Blindness of Disobedience

    9 Pause and wonder! Blind yourselves and be blind! They are drunk, but not with wine; They stagger, but not with intoxicating drink. 10 For the Lord has poured out on you The spirit of deep sleep, And has closed your eyes, namely, the prophets; And He has covered your heads, namely, the seers.

Isaiah prophesies about the restoration of Israel and the coming judgment on their enemies.

The verse speaks about a time when those who were spiritually blind and deaf would receive understanding from God.

  • Isaiah 29:18 NKJV

    18 In that day the deaf shall hear the words of the book, And the eyes of the blind shall see out of obscurity and out of darkness.

  • Isaiah 29:24 NKJV

    24 These also who erred in spirit will come to understanding, And those who complained will learn doctrine.”

This enlightenment is not about a new scripture but about a deeper understanding of God's truth and revelation! It's very unlikely that Isaiah, an Old Testament prophet speaking to the people of Israel, would be referring to a future scripture that belongs to a totally different religious tradition altogether!

Furthermore, interpreting Old Testament passages as references to the Quran can be seen as a form of retroactive prophecy, meaning that later beliefs are read back into earlier texts. This is very dangerous because such interpretations might not align with the original intent of the authors or the historical context for that matter!

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The suggestion that Isa 29:18 was/is fulfilled by the production of the Quran is not possible for two simple reasons:

  1. The context in in V17 makes it clear that the prophecy has something to do with the re-greening of Lebanon
  2. The prophecy is explicitly about the "Holy One of Israel"

The Quran accomplished neither of these. Further we might add that the following extra reasons why the OP's interpretation is untenable:

  • the deaf did not "hear" the Quran
  • the blind did not see

In fact, the Isaiah prophecy is clearly a Messianic prophecy about Jesus. Certainly Jesus made the deaf to hear and the blind to see and made the humble increase their joy in the LORD. Benson summarizes this well when he says:

Isaiah 29:17. Is it not a very little while, &c. — The following paragraph, to the end of the chapter, relates to the times of the gospel; the prophet foretelling therein, in figurative language, the rejection of the Jews and the calling of the Gentiles. Lebanon, a barren mountain, a desolate wilderness, here stands for the Gentile world. This was to be turned into a fruitful field — Hebrew, לכרמל, into Carmel, or the vineyard of God, as the word signifies. On the other hand, the fruitful field, what had formerly been the vineyard of God, the Jewish Church, should be esteemed as a forest — See this interpretation confirmed, Isaiah 32:15; and Matthew 15:7-8.

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  • Why can’t an Islamic explanation claim re-greening Lebanon refers to the Islamic conquest of the entire levant? Mar 14 at 3:17
  • @AviAvraham - historically, Islamic conquest of the middle east often had the opposite effect - much vegetation lost in the battles.
    – Dottard
    Mar 14 at 3:30

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