6

Isaiah/Yeshaayahu 2:2-4 and Micah/Micha 4:1-3 (BHS) are almost 90% identical in the Hebrew, leading scholars such as Oswalt to speculate that there may have been two original sources or one source that was intentionally corrupted resulting in two readings (cf. p. 115 of Book of Isaiah Chapters 1-39).

What are some theories that exist to explain the high degree of similarity between these two texts (and who espouses these theories)? What was likely the original form or forms?

Improve this question
2
  • Would you consider the possibility that Isaiah and Micah personally had known one another? In other words, is there the possibility that one may have had direct, personal influence on the other (or vice-versa)?
    – Joseph
    May 15, 2014 at 13:38
  • 2
    The source is Isaiah 1:1 and Micah 1:1, which relate that BOTH prophets ministered during the time of Jotham, Ahaz, and Hezekiah (i.e., the southern Kingdom in Jerusalem). In other words, the time span of all three kings was no less than 20 years; it would appear therefore that Isaiah and Micah were contemporaries in the same geographical location ministering to the same kings in Jerusalem at the same time (some 20+ years).
    – Joseph
    May 15, 2014 at 14:33

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
1

Naturally expositors have various conjectures and the opinions are many. The main theories seem to be these:

  1. A quotation from Mica in the margin of Isaiah accidentally transferred into the main text
  2. Both quote another prophecy
  3. Both independently receive the same inspired prophecy
  4. Either one quotes the other

This debate goes way back and Joseph Alexander tallies up some big names who debated the issue:

These verses are found, with very little variation, in the fourth chapter of Micah (vers. 1–3), to explain which some suppose, that a motto or quotation has been accidentally transferred from the margin to the text of Isaiah (Justi, Eichhorn, Bertholdt, Credner); others, that both Prophets quote from Joel (Vogel, Hitzig, Ewald); others, that both quote from an older writer now unknown (Koppe, Rosenmüller, Maurer, De Wette, Knobel); others that Micah quotes from Isaiah (Vitringa, Lowth, Beckhaus, Umbreit); others, that Isaiah quotes from Micah (J. D. Michaelis, Gesenius, Hendewerk, Henderson). This diversity of judgment may at least suffice to shew how vain conjecture is in such a case. The close connection of the passage with the context, as it stands in Micah, somewhat favours the conclusion that Isaiah took the text or theme of his prediction from the younger though contemporary prophet. The verbal variations may be best explained, however, by supposing that they both adopted a traditional prediction current among the people in their day, or that both received the words directly from the Holy Spirit. So long as we have reason to regard both places as authentic and inspired, it matters little what is the literary history of either. (Alexander, J. A. (Trans.). (1870). The Prophecies of Isaiah Translated and Explained, Vol. 1, p. 96)

Improve this answer
0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.