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Gen 9:11 says: "...neither shall there ever again be a flood to destroy the earth and make it corrupt." (Amplified Bible).

Didn't the flood wipe away corruptness? Why does it say here that the flood made the earth corrupt, when it was corrupt before the flood, and the intention of the flood was to wipe away corruptness?

Thanks.

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This is really just a case of the Amplified Bible being a bad translation. Compare all the other translations listed here; they all just say "destroy the earth".

Possibly it is trying to clarify what type of destruction was involved. Clearly the earth wasn't completely destroyed. Instead it was more like it was purged, or levelled, or erased. But if that's what the translators were trying to do, 'corrupt' is still a bad translation.

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