In 1 Timothy 3:4, regarding the qualifications of the elder, it states, “...having his children in subjection” (cf. Tit. 1:6).
4 One that ruleth well his own house, having his children in subjection with all gravity; KJV, ©1769
The Greek text states,
Δʹ τοῦ ἰδίου οἴκου καλῶς προϊστάμενον, τέκνα ἔχοντα ἐν ὑποταγῇ, μετὰ πάσης σεμνότητος NA28, ©2012
Is the Greek word translated into English as “children” actually declined in the plural number, thus meaning two or more children? Or is it declined in the singular number, thus meaning that the elder can have one child.
(Some say the Greek word can be understood as both plural and singular.)