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Jeremiah 30:9 says, according to the NIV: "Instead they will serve the Lord their God and David their king, whom I will raise up for them."

Most of the other translations are the same.

It seems very clear that it will be David, not one of David's descendants, but how much of a stretch from the original text (Hebrew?) is it to say that Jeremiah is referring to a descendant of David?

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  • David would seem to be metaphorically referring to all kings of Davidic descent
    – Jewels
    May 1 '14 at 12:01
  • This was edited to make it more fitting here, as this is not an explicitly Christian site.
    – Dan
    May 2 '14 at 4:05
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The simple answer to your question is that it is not stretching it at all to use the ancestor to refer to the descendent in Hebrew. Often the descendent in Middle Eastern culture identifies with their ancestor by name.

The use of the name David fits within the bounds of Hebrew idiomatic usage as a euphemism. When God speaks of David here, it is a reference to the promise He made.


To understand the verse it is worth looking at the context and origin of the idea presented in it .i.e "David their king, whom I will raise up for them"

It starts back in 2 Samuel 7:8-13

8 “Now therefore, thus you shall say to My servant David, ‘Thus says the LORD of hosts, “I took you from the pasture, from following the sheep, to be ruler over My people Israel. 9 I have been with you wherever you have gone and have cut off all your enemies from before you; and I will make you a great name, like the names of the great men who are on the earth. 10 I will also appoint a place for My people Israel and will plant them, that they may live in their own place and not be disturbed again, nor will the wicked afflict them any more as formerly, 11 even from the day that I commanded judges to be over My people Israel; and I will give you rest from all your enemies. The LORD also declares to you that the LORD will make a house for you. 12 When your days are complete and you lie down with your fathers, I will raise up your descendant after you, who will come forth from you, and I will establish his kingdom. 13 He shall build a house for My name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever.

That is the initial prophesy that Nathan spoke to David shortly after he became king. Almost all of the other passages referring to this prophesy speak of David's descendent.


Biblical hermeneutics teaches us that it is import to in interpret a passage with other like passages and if at all by the same author. Earlier Jeremiah writes about this prophesy but references David's descendent with the term branch.

Jer 23:5 “Behold, the days are coming,” declares the LORD, “When I will raise up for David a righteous Branch; And He will reign as king and act wisely And do justice and righteousness in the land.

This shows that Jeremiah understood the Messiah to be the one to come, not a resurrected David but a descendent of David.

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    Why does it make sense if it only refers to a descendant of David and not David himself? How do we know it does not refer to a resurrected David himself? You have to substantiate your claim. :)
    – user862
    May 1 '14 at 17:32
  • That is a good question. Basically there is no reference to David being resurrected and brought back as the king. However there are hundreds of references/prophecies about the Messiah and Him being a descendent of David. Do I need to substantiate that claim with more scripture or is it general knowledge and enough. While there is no NT reference to Jesus being called David, he is said to fulfill the prophesy of sitting on David's throne. Additionally there are 'types' of Christ throughout the OT and David is understood to be one. May 1 '14 at 17:55
  • Why did I get the down vote? How can I better answer this question? Does it lack clarity or logic or is it something else? May 2 '14 at 14:09
  • 1
    I see your point, I will remove it. May 2 '14 at 21:06
  • 1
    I can only speculate, but I think that they try to stay as close to the original as possible. If you look at the NLT it says "and their king descended from David". That is an example of a loose translation adding in the explanation. May 12 '14 at 22:25
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Jesus Christ is the descendant of David, raising a righteous remnant of God's people through His salvation for all nations. 2 Samuel 7:8-13 applies here as does Isaiah 53:1-12 and all of the Messianic promises of the Old Testament. Matthew shows this genealogy in chapter one very well. Israel of course was seeking salvation from kings who would conquer and hold them in exile. The promised savior offered to bear the sins of the people and eternally release the from God's judgment. Isaiah. 53:8-12 unfolds in Luke 23:1-25 and Luke 23:34 at Jesus' trial. In His crucifixion Jesus said to the criminals hanging with Him regarding fear of God's condemnation: "Assuredly, I say to you, today you will be with Me in Paradise." The promise is to all who overcomes that they may eat from the tree of life, which is in the Paradise of God as found in Rev. 2:7.

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  • Hi user27208! Welcome to Hermeneutics.SE. You might take the tour if you have not yet. Since the question is about Jeremiah 30:9 specifically it would be good if your answer addressed that verse in some way.
    – colboynik
    Oct 27 '18 at 18:12

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