In Gen 1:1, some translation say 'heavens' and others say 'heaven.' Which one is correct?
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1הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם (hassamayim) is the dual of an unused singular from an unused root meaning 'to be lofty'. see Strong 8064.– Nigel JCommented Jan 3 at 19:46
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@Awo Amo since the process is just beginning there is little information at the point of the first verse. My KJV says heaven ( singular ) as the creation continues in the following days more information is given. Since heaven or heavens are infinite your question is not easily answered based on the first verse only. You may have to be more specific on when.– RHPclass79Commented Jan 3 at 19:49
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Please edit the question to limit it to a specific problem with enough detail to identify an adequate answer.– Community BotCommented Jan 3 at 19:50
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Paul in 2 Cor 12:2 alluded to idea of multiple heavens(1st, 2nd and 3rd heaven). And in other passages of scripture(2 Chr 6:18, Ps 115:16, Duet 10:14), same idea is also suggested. As I understand the creation account in Genesis 1:1-, the first verse is a grand summary of what's decscribed in subsequest verses and continuing in Ch.2. Here's my question: Which heaven did God create in Gen 1:1 - the first or the second or all of them(however many there are)? Hope this clarifies the question.– Awo AmoCommented Jan 4 at 2:47
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This is like asking what Clint Eastwood said to the helpless man lying on the ground before him, was it either "Do you feel lucky, punk? or was it Do you feel lucky punk? "– GwenKillerbyCommented Jan 4 at 22:05
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5 Answers
Actually, in Hebrew, nouns have three forms of number - singular, dual and plural. English only has singular and plural. [Side note: classical Greek had singular, dual and plural but by the time of the NT Koine Greek, it only had singular and plural.]
The word in Hebrew for "heavens" in Gen 1:1, as in all places throughout the OT, is the dual form, הַשָּׁמַ֖יִם (shamayim), literally "two heavens". [It never occurs in the singular form.] This noun can refer to any of the following:
- the atmosphere or air where birds fly, Gen 1:20, 2:19, Deut 4:17, etc.
- the starry heavens, Gen 15:5, Deut 4:19, etc.
- the abode of God, 1 Kings 8:30, Ps 2:4, etc.
Note that the Hebrews made no distinction between these three ideas as we do today.
[Side note: In the NT the equivalent word is οὐρανός (ouranos) which can occur in both singular (eg, Matt 5:18, 34, 6:10, 20, etc.), or plural (the most common, eg, Matt 3:2, 16, 17, 4:17, 5:3, 10, 12, 16, 19, 20, etc. Indeed, the NT writers appear to make no difference between the singular and plural form of οὐρανός]
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A rabbi I knew in my grad school days, commenting on the idea of "the third heaven" (mentioned by Paul), said that in second temple Judaism the tripartite heaven as you indicated above was standard. Commented Jan 15 at 23:43
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Jonathan T. Pennington spends a significant amount of time on this question in his book, Heaven and Earth in the Gospel of Matthew. This scholarly book is based on his doctoral thesis. Incidentally, as a result of the words Jesus chose in his conversations with different groups of people, I became convinced that Jesus also spoke Greek.– DieterCommented Sep 5 at 5:09
In English, the word heaven can be pluralized, but in Hebrew, there is only one form, and this form ends with the morpheme that generally marks the plural in the Hebrew language. So the Hebrew word שָׁמַיִם does not have a singular form, it only exists in this form, which is why most translators translate "heavens". ׁׁׁׁׁ
It is heavens, plural. Except the original word was one which doesnt have a singular and plural version. Almost like how we use the word deer. There is only the one word by which we change its meaning thru context. That's the best example I could think of sorry.
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Your answer could be improved with additional supporting information. Please edit to add further details, such as citations or documentation, so that others can confirm that your answer is correct. You can find more information on how to write good answers in the help center.– Community BotCommented Jan 5 at 13:55
I never cease to amazed at how we humans will elucidate with scholarly explanation with details to prove our points, regardless of how valuable the input is, especially with regard to scripture. We want to question God's Word, changing it at will, until eventually the net result completely changes the meaning of a verse, the thought, or idea of what God was trying to get across to us through His leading Holy Spirit. We literally don't trust the KJV translators but will trust those who take manuscript text taken from some other location (Alexandria Egypt) whose text is supposedly earlier than the Antioch scripts, the latter being the location where the disciples and followers of the Jesus were called "Christians." Why not trust that the translators of the KJV, actually researched this matter and knew that "heaven" was the appropriate word both in singular and in context. My pappy said, "why beat a dead horse to death, let it lie in peace and accept that it is what it is." There is a reason that the KJV translators used singular and it fits the narrative perfectly. A first heaven (atmosphere sky), with the "rest of the story," yet to come, as Paul Harvey would say.
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Why not to trust the KJV could be a good Question. Some reasons: (i) translations aren't for trusting they are only stepping-stones (ii) the KJV's translators didn't publish their research or working notes (iii) they were using the MSS of 400 years ago (iv) weird theological bias (e.g. “demon” vs. “devil”) (v) you need to translate the English into English (vi) it gets it right sometimes but it's rarely recommended 'case-by-case' - more often as a blanket approach by people who value telling others what-it-means more than helping them read-what-it-says (vii) should have taught everyone Greek!– FelixLXXCommented Sep 4 at 16:16
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Your answer could be improved with additional supporting information. Please edit to add further details, such as citations or documentation, so that others can confirm that your answer is correct. You can find more information on how to write good answers in the help center.– Community BotCommented Sep 5 at 15:54
The French translation of Genesis 1:1 is:
Au commencement, Dieu créa les cieux et la terre.
The word "cieux" means "skies".
As in Hebrew, the French word for sky is also used for heaven. There is no distinction, in Hebrew or French, between the various meanings that the word can have; one has to use context to determine whether it means the atmosphere, outer space, or God's Heaven.
In this case, it obviously does not mean God's Heaven was created then; it means that the earth, its atmosphere, and outer space were created (i.e. the physical universe).
The first two of the three heavens (skies) were created then, so the plural word is appropriate.
answered Sep 5 at 3:26
