The definition of προορίζω in the Enhanced Strong's Lexicon is:

4309 Six occurrences; AV translates as “predestinate” four times, “determine before” once, and “ordain” once. 1 to predetermine, decide beforehand. 2 in the NT of God decreeing from eternity. 3 to foreordain, appoint beforehand.

Is there any reliable, peer reviewed research that contradicts this definition?

  • 1
    This is an interesting answer, but do keep in mind that Strong's is a concordance, not a lexicon, and generally free tools that use Strong's rely on outdated lexical resources. You may wish to reference what a more recent (and more reliable) lexicon says. – Dan Sep 16 '13 at 15:25
  • Please, forgive my ignorance, but I am honestly confused. You mean the book I have titled, "Enhanced Strong's Lexicon" is not in fact, a lexicon? Here is the product link:logos.com/product/181/enhanced-strongs-lexicon – blundin Sep 25 '13 at 21:56
  • that's correct, it says in the description on that link: "Strong's Numbers with Brown, Driver, Briggs and Thayer lexicons." The Hebrew lexicon is thus BDB and the Greek is Thayer's, which I explain in this post. – Dan Sep 26 '13 at 14:27
  • But it is a good question, because historically it did not always carry the Calvinist/fatalist sense of 'predetermine' from a historical perspective - but I need to find the source I read however long ago before I can answer. – Dan Sep 26 '13 at 14:28
  • Actually, I probably will not answer, because the plain meaning of the word is fine. It is moreso the Manichean-Gnostic-influenced doctrinal/theological positions that evolved in association with the word that were not inherent in its meaning. But the plain sense of the word has not changed, as John points out. – Dan Sep 26 '13 at 19:08

That seems unlikely. The word is clearly a compound of προ, which is equivalent to the English prefix "pre-", and ορίζω which means:

v. define, fix, designate, detail, determine, prescribe, set

As far as I can tell, this particular definition still applies to the word in modern Greek.

  • Yes it mean that but has nothing to do with Gnostic (Manichean) fatalism as Augustine falsely asserted. – user1985 Dec 28 '13 at 21:25

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.