My question specifically concerns Daniel 9:24 where H6588 is doubled and H2856, (when using a Bible tool, but not on Blue Letter Bible). I wonder if the point of the author is being missed. I have noticed this pattern in different scriptures in the book.

Does anyone know why? Is this some Hebrew way of writing? How come it's not translated that way?

Hebrew interlinear of Daniel 9:24

  • Do you mean the last two words, קֹ֥דֶשׁ קָֽדָשִֽׁים ? Holy of holies? This repeated word is 6944 and not 6588. So, I am confused.
    – Dottard
    Dec 27, 2023 at 12:53
  • @Dottard... Hebrew at Sefaria.org has repeated words in brackets. I see sin/sins but I don't know what to make of it. I've asked about it on Mi yodeya. שָׁבֻעִ֨ים שִׁבְעִ֜ים נֶחְתַּ֥ךְ עַֽל־עַמְּךָ֣ ׀ וְעַל־עִ֣יר קׇדְשֶׁ֗ךָ לְכַלֵּ֨א הַפֶּ֜שַׁע (ולחתם) [וּלְהָתֵ֤ם] (חטאות) [חַטָּאת֙] וּלְכַפֵּ֣ר עָוֺ֔ן וּלְהָבִ֖יא צֶ֣דֶק עֹֽלָמִ֑ים וְלַחְתֹּם֙ חָז֣וֹן וְנָבִ֔יא וְלִמְשֹׁ֖חַ קֹ֥דֶשׁ קׇֽדָשִֽׁים׃ Dec 27, 2023 at 14:10
  • I was referred to this article en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Qere_and_Ketiv... seems like in this case we are talking about an editorial decisions to include alternative renderings of the text. So it's not really a case of doubling?? Dec 27, 2023 at 14:20
  • I placed a pic to show what I mean Dec 27, 2023 at 14:55
  • @ThatwemaybethepraiseofHisglory With your updated picture, it's pretty clear that you're referencing the Qere/Ketivs. Cf. my post from a number of hours ago as an answer to your question.
    – Epimanes
    Dec 27, 2023 at 17:37

2 Answers 2


I don't exactly know if I understand your question, because, when I pull up the interlinear bible you provide, the number codes don't seem to match up. I don't use interlinear bibles because I find them distracting. And, if you know Hebrew, the number codes are distracting. However, I think you might be asking about the two Qere/Ketiv notations in that verse. So I'll walk through those with you.

The Hebrew scribes were quite faithful in handing down their scriptures to us. But what if a scribe (or groups of scribes) were in question about what to do with a specific word written in the text? Do you change the word? Instead of doing that, they kept the word written in the text (the Ketiv) written as it was. But then they took away the vowel pointings and directed you to the margin to be read (Qere).

These Qere/Ketiv notations serve several purposes:

  • Correct scribal errors
  • soften indelicate expressions

There are two of these in this verse.

Example 1

The Ketiv is וּלַחְתֹּם. It is the Qal infinitive construct. The Qere (what they want you to read instead) is וּלְהָתֵם (the hiphil infinitive construct). This could change the meaning slightly from "seal up" to "cause to seal up."

Example 2

The Ketiv is חַטָּאוֹת. This is the noun for 'sin' (missing the mark, like ⲁⲙⲁⲣⲧⲁⲛⲱ in Greek). The way it is pointed in the Ketiv the noun is plural. the Qere wants you to repoint it so that it is singular (חַטָּאת֙)


On this issue, I'm just a learner so I'm happy to be corrected. I think @Epimanes is right that this is an example of Qere and Ketiv but in this case there is neither a scribal error nor an indelicate expression replaced by a euphemism. Rather, it represents a third purpose that Epimanes did not mention, where the pronunciation of the words in Hebrew carries a different meaning from the traditional (Aramaic) understanding of what is meant. In other words, there is only one Masoretic text, but the Aramaic pronunciation of the word carries a different meaning. An answer at Mi Yodeya explained:

sometimes there's a variation between what would be written in a handwritten scroll, and the way it should be pronounced... in this case, it's a difference of two letters, and only a finely nuanced meaning: as written it would translate "and to seal off sins", but as pronounced it's "to expiate sin."

On the other hand, another answerer of the same question said it was indeed a question of textual variants. So, like I said, I'm still learning.

  • Here it wouldn't be the Aramaic, since this is the Hebrew portion of Daniel.
    – Epimanes
    Dec 28, 2023 at 0:23
  • Hebrew TC is different than that of the Greek NT. Our Hebrew bible is based on one codex (Leningradensis). Variants are then measured against that one text. Here, in the apparatus, it shows that there are many mediaeval editions that go with the qere. Likewise, Aquila, The Syriac, and the Vulgate go with the Qere. So here, it is an issue of a textual variant.
    – Epimanes
    Dec 28, 2023 at 0:29
  • Is there any way to learn what these words that are double under the strongs numbers, mean because they look totally different Jan 5 at 8:32

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