“And he took a cup, and when he had given thanks he said, “Take this, and divide it among yourselves.” (Luk 22:17, ESV)
Matthew and Mark refer to the bread, then the cup. In both cases it says Jesus takes the cup, gives thanks, and gives it to them. Luke mentions the cup, then the bread, then returns to the cup.
“And likewise the cup after they had eaten, saying, “This cup that is poured out for you is the new covenant in my blood.” (Luk 22:20, ESV)
I have a few questions.
is the cup of verse 17 the sacramental cup, or not? I find the parallel pattern of Jesus taking, blessing, and giving to indicate it's the same cup.
Barne's notes on the bible argues it is a different cup:
And he took the cup and gave thanks - This was not the "sacramental" cup, for that was taken "after" supper, Luke 22:20. This was one of the cups which were usually taken during the celebration of the Passover, and pertained to that observance. "After" he had kept this in the usual manner, he instituted the supper which bears his name, using the bread and wine which had been prepared for the Passover, and thus ingrafted the Lord's Supper on the Passover, or superseded the Passover by another ordinance, which was intended to be perpetual.
If it is the same cup, what is mechanically going on? The picture I'm getting is that the wine was distributed, then the bread was taken and eaten, then the wine was consumed. Only Luke necessarily indicates that the wine was consumed after the bread, Matthew and Mark seem time indifferent, saying "and he took a cup". I'm assuming the accounts can be harmonized, and it seems compatible with Matthew and Mark that Jesus' giving thanks for and drinking of the wine can be interrupted by the taking of the bread.
What does "divide it among yourselves" entail? Is it even textually possible that "dividing" διαμερίζω meant sipping from a common cup? The above order requires a number of separate cups, each filled from Christ's, each disciple waiting to drink until after the bread was consumed.
This reading seems supported by the "pouring" language during the institution of the wine in Luke 22:20. Does "this cup" mean the literal, tangible cup? Is "poured"/"shed" ἐκχέω compatible with sipping from a cup?
I gather that the words are spoken prior to the disciples drinking the wine based on Matthew's account:
“And he took a cup, and when he had given thanks he gave it to them, saying, “Drink of it, all of you, for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins.” (Mat 26:27-28, ESV)
Does the tense of "this cup that is poured out for you" (Luke) imply that the cup is empty prior to the disciples drinking wine? Or perhaps have I misidentified the cup, or misplaced the drinking relative to the statement.
Thank you in advance.