1 Timothy 2:3–4 says:
"This is good, and it is pleasing in the sight of God our Savior who desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth"
τοῦτο καλὸν καὶ ἀπόδεκτον ἐνώπιον τοῦ Σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Θεοῦ,ὃς πάντας ἀνθρώπους θέλει σωθῆναι καὶ εἰς ἐπίγνωσιν ἀληθείας ἐλθεῖν."
The "God our savior" part- is this truly a good translation? I think it would make more sense if it was Jesus' will here but not the father's as we see in Luke 22:42
"Nevertheless, not my will, but yours, be done.”
I have a very limited knowledge of Greek, so I would appreciate if someone could clear this up. I would assume that this passage is not saying that God wants all people to be saved, but that the Savior wants this (who is Jesus). And their wills are not identical.
Similarly I'm of the opinion that the Lord in 2 Peter 3:9 is also Jesus and not God the father
The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward younot wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance.
If interpretations here are not the case then it would convince me to reevaluate calvinism, but as it stands if nobody can come to Christ unless the father grants them repentance or draws them, and he does not draw everyone this would be logically inconsistent.
John 6:64-65 "But there are some of you who do not believe.” (For Jesus knew from the beginning who those were who did not believe, and who it was who would betray him.) 65 And he said, “This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father.”
I could see this last point countered by a difference between how people are drawn to salvation post and pre Resurrection, but it would beg the question why he said that and God preserved the word till now if it did not apply today, as we know, there are letters that Paul wrote that have not survived today but John 6 does. I'm not saying this isn't the case but I would need to be convinced.