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I've head a preacher making the case for a sermon regarding this, it was very interesting. My limited insight into it seems to confirm it, but can someone help clarify?

Mark 6:6 KJV

And he marvelled because of their unbelief. And he went round about the villages, teaching.

Luke 7:9 KJV

When Jesus heard these things, he marvelled at him, and turned him about, and said unto the people that followed him, I say unto you, I have not found so great faith, no, not in Israel.

Matthew 8:10 KJV

When Jesus heard it, he marvelled, and said to them that followed, Verily I say unto you, I have not found so great faith, no, not in Israel.

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  • Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics! and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the tour to understand how the site works and how it is different than others. I also recommend going through the Help Center's sections on both asking and answering questions.
    – agarza
    Commented Sep 18, 2023 at 14:59
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    check biblehub greek interlinear then the lexicon meanings, or from blueletterbible, and stepbible org site.
    – Michael16
    Commented Sep 18, 2023 at 15:15

2 Answers 2

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Yes, all three verbs in Matt 8:10, Mark 6:6 & Luke 7:9 are the same Greek verb, namely, θαυμάζω (thaumazó) which occurs 44 times in the NT text. The various shades of meaning of this verb are given by BDAG as:

  1. to be extraordinarily impressed or disturbed by something
  • (a) intransitive: wonder, marvel, be astonished (the context determines whether in a good sense or bad sense), eg, Matt 8:10, 15:31, 22:22, 27:14, Mark 5:20, 15:5, Luke 1:21, 63, 8:25, 11:14, 24:41, John 5:20, 7:21, Acts 4:13, 13:12, 41, Rev 17:7, Gal 1:6, etc
  • (b) transitive: admire, wonder at, respect, eg, Luke 24:12, John 5:28, Acts 7:31, Luke 7:9, Jude 16, 2 Thess 1:10.
  1. Wonder, be amazed, as deponent with aorist and future passive:, eg, Rev 17:8, 13:3.

Note that Mark 6:6 and Matt 8:10 are intransitive cases but Luke 7:9 is a transitive case. Further, Mark 6:6 is an astonishment in a bad sense (because of unbelief) while Luke 7:9 and matt 8:10 is astonishment in a good sense (because of commendable faith).

Lastly, while the same verb is involved, the grammatical inflexion is slightly different in each case. All this is summarized in the list below:

  • Mark 6:6 - ἐθαύμαζεν = imperative indicative active, 3rd person singular [intransitive; marveled in a bad sense]
  • Luke 7:9 - ἐθαύμασεν = aorist indicative active, 3rd person singular [transitive; marveled in a good sense]
  • Matt 8:10 - ἐθαύμασεν = aorist indicative active, 3rd person singular intransitive; marveled in a good sense]
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If I understand what you mean then yes these verses use the same word in Greek.

Mark 6:6 KJV interlinear

Luke 7:9 KJV interlinear

Mathew 8:10 KJV interlinear

Here are also other passages that use the same root word.

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  • Welcome to Biblical Hermeneutics! and thank you for your contribution. When you get a chance, please take the tour to understand how the site works and how it is different than others. I also recommend going through the Help Center's sections on both asking and answering questions.
    – agarza
    Commented Sep 18, 2023 at 20:55

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