I wanted to see the arguments for and against the placement of Isaiah 9:1 and the translation of "כָּבַד". [ie, 3513]
So, What are the arguments for the placement of Isaiah 9:1 in Isaiah 9 and what are the arguments for it being in Isaiah 8?
But there will be no gloom for her who was in anguish. In the former time he brought into contempt the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, but in the latter time he has made glorious the way of the sea, the land beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the nations.
Nevertheless, the dimness shall not be such as was in her vexation, when at the first he lightly afflicted the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali, and afterward did more grievously afflict her by the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, in Galilee of the nations.
I have seen the word being translated as afflict and as honored so I am wondering which is the correct version and what are the arguments for it?